metsfan026 Posted yesterday at 02:57 PM Posted yesterday at 02:57 PM I just want to make sure I'm understanding this right, as I just help out with certain clients. We have a client that froze it's Cash Balance Plan as of January 1, 2025. So, the facts (I believe): 1) The Normal Cost for the year is $0 2) The Amortization Schedule is negative 3) The assets are slightly greater than the Funding Target Under this scenario, is it accurate that no contributions are owed for either plan (the Profit Sharing becomes discretionary I believe)? Thanks in advance!
Bri Posted 23 hours ago Posted 23 hours ago Would need to see a little more, like why is there still any shortfall amortization if the assets exceeded the FT? Was there a PFB?
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