Guest Aaron K. Posted February 1, 2001 Posted February 1, 2001 Looking for some advice here... XYZ client has a 401(k) Plan that contains after tax contributions. Recordkeeper B takes the plan over from prior recordkeeper A. The client nor the prior recordkeeper (no longer in business) cannot provide data that separating the amount of after-tax contributions from earnings prior to recordkeeper B taking the plan over. Because of this, distributions from the after-tax source cannot be processed as the cost basis is unknown. What options does the client have in this situation? Since the required data isn't available to correctly determine the taxable and non-taxable amounts, are after-tax monies distributed 100% taxable? Are there any other options?
david rigby Posted February 1, 2001 Posted February 1, 2001 You might see if this discussion helps. http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=8726 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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