AndyT Posted April 17, 2001 Posted April 17, 2001 A non-5% owner may defer (assuming document allows) age 70 1/2 distributions until after retirement. What if a full-time salaried employee reduces down to 5 hours per week? How about 1 hour per month? At what point is the person considered retired or separated from service? I couldn't find anything in the plethora of IRS Notices released back in 1996 and 97. Did I miss something?
Bill Berke Posted April 17, 2001 Posted April 17, 2001 I've also found this to be troublesome. There are old, still relevant, IRS rulings which distinguish between separation of service and break-in-service. I am of the belief that until you actually perform no more services for the employer you have not "retired" or "terminated. This belief stems from those old rulings. As long as your employee works "parttime", he/she has not separated from service (and not retired). I think you will find this stuff under the old "lump sum" distribution rules.
david rigby Posted April 17, 2001 Posted April 17, 2001 Well, the plan should state when commencement is or isn't. For example, it might state that no payment will be made until the participant actually severs employment (with exception for 70-1/2 requirement, of course). We also know that a plan can permit commencement without regard to separation of service if the EE has reached NRA. I wonder if the plan could be amended to permit distribution if the EE has reached age 74 (for example) instead of NRA. Would this work? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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