Integrated Formula

Got a new plan to us.

The plan document is written with 0% integration level on a 2 tier non-elective.

Why would some do this?  What is the logic?  I don't get it.

Maybe they meant it as plain pro rata and didn't know how to skip the integration question of their document software.  Because that's what they end up with basically, right?

Up to 5.7% of the first zero of wages.

Either that or they have employees with negative earnings (they PAY us to work here!) and therefore are below the integration level.  🤷‍♂️

It looks like a mistake to me too.

With an integration level of 0%, wouldn't the employee be getting 5.7 on comp plus excess comp?  So the first dollar is 2 dollars..... at 5.7.

Who knows? Maybe someone else has seen something like this....

Up to 5.7% of pay up to $0, plus the non-integrated piece.  Yup.