FT Retire Posted November 28, 2022 Posted November 28, 2022 An employee stopped working for a company for a certain period of time, kept on payroll, but did not officially terminate from the company. Would you consider his termination date the day he/she stopped working for them or the date they are no longer on payroll? I'm thinking the latter, but would like to know your thoughts on this.
Lou S. Posted November 28, 2022 Posted November 28, 2022 Ask the client? Luke Bailey, Bill Presson and Calavera 3
ESOP Guy Posted November 28, 2022 Posted November 28, 2022 If you are the TPA it isn't your job to decide when the DOT is but for the client to do so. I have a number of staffing firm clients and when a person terminates vs just isn't assigned to a client is a constant conversation. But the client decides every time. Luke Bailey 1
CuseFan Posted November 29, 2022 Posted November 29, 2022 Agree - not your responsibility. Lot's of issues - is this a continuation of pay including a continuation of benefits, is it accrued sick and or vacation time, (are hours of service being properly credited) or is it severance? Luke Bailey 1 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
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