metsfan026 Posted March 28 Posted March 28 Just a question, because I honestly haven't dealt with too many frozen plans. If someone is having some cash flow issues and want to freeze their cash balance plan for only 1 year, is that an issue? I just wanted to make sure. It's a discussion that's being had, but not necessarily going to happen. It would be for 2025, since no one has worked 1,000 hours for the year.
Effen Posted March 28 Posted March 28 Very common strategy. Just make sure you do it before anyone earns a benefit and make sure you get the 204(h) notices out on time. Lou S., Bill Presson, Jakyasar and 1 other 4 The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Bill Presson Posted March 28 Posted March 28 And understand that a freeze doesn’t mean there won’t be any contribution due. It will still depend on the investments and overall funding level. acm_acm and Jakyasar 2 William C. Presson, ERPA, QPA, QKA bill.presson@gmail.com C 205.994.4070
truphao Posted March 28 Posted March 28 not sure if 204(h) is applicable to an Owner-only Plan. Although the regulations do not exempt Onwer-only situations explicitely but it is not an ERISA plan.
Jakyasar Posted March 30 Posted March 30 Once you activate the plan, make sure to exclude any increase attributable to the HCE's for the cushion calculations. Otherwise, the statements from Effen and Bill are correct.
CuseFan Posted March 31 Posted March 31 I would also caution against repeating this strategy any time within the next few years for the same employer, and make sure the employer is aware of that, as you do not want a pattern of amendments that creates a discretionary arrangement in practice. Jakyasar 1 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
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