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Am I thinking this one through correctly?

Company A is owned 45% Husband, 45% Wife, 10% adult child.

Company B is owned 100% by adult child.

If I attribute the mom's ownership to the adult child, then adult child owns more than 50%, so would then be attributed Dad's ownership, therefore being 100% owner of Company A?

Adult child now has 100% common ownership and 100% identical ownership so Company A and Company B are a controlled group?

Thanks very much.

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