Jump to content

Recommended Posts

Posted

Takeover 401k PS plan - never had a TPA apparently.  There has never been tracking of balances by money source (401k & PS only). Terminated participant wants to take a full distribution. For tax purposes upon distribution only, does it matter that there are no defined balances between sources?

Posted

Unless some of the deferrals were Roth, I cannot think of any tax difference if it is going to be either distributed in cash or rolled over. For example, distribution will cleanse the deferral dollars from the pre-59-1/2 distribution restriction.

Luke Bailey

Senior Counsel

Clark Hill PLC

214-651-4572 (O) | LBailey@clarkhill.com

2600 Dallas Parkway Suite 600

Frisco, TX 75034

Posted

Don't you have to determine whether the participant is fully vested in the PS source? If so, it should not make a difference. If not, how can you make this without going back and tracking balances?

 

Posted

And there are other things to ask about (whether or not it seems likely): loans, QDROs, hardship withdrawals ...

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted

Vesting is not an issue.

But yes, all reasons in favor of TPA's over CPA's administering plans.

Ken - part of the point of my question is it is either: 1. Impossible to back to accurately determine specific balances, or 2. It could be possible, but would be quite costly to the Plan Sponsor.

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Terms of Use