Guest CGBS Posted February 24, 2000 Posted February 24, 2000 It happens every year. I have an employee who started deferring before attaining age 21. Is the current thinking that the PLAN should not refund the money to the participant, but rather that money should be "forfeited"? The plan is silent on ineligibles who defer. If people are still refunding the money what IRS code should be used. Thanks for any help.
Guest Posted February 24, 2000 Posted February 24, 2000 don't refer to it as a distribution. remember, if its a distribution certain rules apply - mandatory withholding, 10% early withdrawal, etc. but the money should never have been in the plan in the first place, so its not a 'distribution'. that is why it is suggested to correct the W-2 when the money is returned. It is money that should have shown on the w-2 to start with.
M R Bernardin Posted February 24, 2000 Posted February 24, 2000 I think the current thinking on this is that you leave the deferrals in the plan, place them in a forfeiture/suspense account for future use, and make the participant whole outside of the plan by reimbursing them the amounts erroneously deferred. I would think you would also adjust the W-2 to show that nothing was deferred by this individual.
rcline46 Posted March 1, 2000 Posted March 1, 2000 I would think this is a classic 'mistake in fact' and returnable TO THE PAYROLL ACCOUNT. The employer then fixes the employee. I do not think it can be paid to the employee.
Guest Powers Posted August 21, 2009 Posted August 21, 2009 I have the same situation except the ineligible deferrals are from 2007, but was forfeited in 2009. Do you correct the 2009 W-2 or do yo have to go back to 2007?
Belgarath Posted August 21, 2009 Posted August 21, 2009 I think you could also go through VCP with a retroactive plan amendment to allow entry/deferral prior to age 21.
Guest Powers Posted August 21, 2009 Posted August 21, 2009 VCP? oh no. I was hoping against that. As it relates to making the participant whole, can the employer pay the employee (now a participant) the additional $150.00 and adjust the 2009 w-2 to reflect the $150.00 that was deferred in 2007? I feel like I am making this too difficult, but I can not find a cite or reference for support.
Laura Harrington Posted August 21, 2009 Posted August 21, 2009 VCP? oh no. I was hoping against that. As it relates to making the participant whole, can the employer pay the employee (now a participant) the additional $150.00 and adjust the 2009 w-2 to reflect the $150.00 that was deferred in 2007? I feel like I am making this too difficult, but I can not find a cite or reference for support. You do not have to go through VCP in order to do a retroactive amendment to change eligibility. EPCRS provides for retroactive amendments to change eligibility in these situations through SCP. However, I believe you do have to submit the amendment for a determination letter. Of course, SCP may not be available in your situation if the failure is significant and not corrected within the 2 year period. So then VCP would be the only option for a retroactive amendment. Laura
BG5150 Posted August 21, 2009 Posted August 21, 2009 This is the only correction of early inclusion I found in EPCRS: (3) Early Inclusion of Otherwise Eligible Employee Failure. (a) Plan AmendmentCorrection Method. The Operational Failure of including an otherwise eligible employee in the plan who either (i) has not completed the plan's minimum age or service requirements, or (ii) has completed the plan's minimum age or service requirements but became a participant in the plan on a date earlier than the applicable plan entry date, may be corrected by using the plan amendment correction method set forth in this paragraph. The plan is amended retroactively to change the eligibility or entry date provisions to provide for the inclusion of the ineligible employee to reflect the plan's actual operations. The amendment may change the eligibility or entry date provisions with respect to only those ineligible employees that were wrongly included, and only to those ineligible employees, provided (i) the amendment satisfies § 401(a) at the time it is adopted, (ii) the amendment would have satisfied § 401(a) had the amendment been adopted at the earlier time when it is effective, and (iii) the employees affected by the amendment are predominantly nonhighly compensated employees. (b) Example Example 27: Employer L maintains a § 401(k) plan applicable to all of its employees who have at least six months of service. The plan is a calendar year plan. The plan provides that Employer L will make matching contributions based upon an employee's salary reduction contributions. In 2007, it is discovered that all four employees who were hired by Employer L in 2006 were permitted to make salary reduction contributions to the plan effective with the first weekly paycheck after they were employed. Three of the four employees are nonhighly compensated. Employer L matched these employees' salary reduction contributions in accordance with the plan's matching contribution formula. Employer L calculates the ADP and ACP tests for 2006 (taking into account the salary reduction and matching contributions that were made for these employees) and determines that the tests were satisfied. Correction: Employer L corrects the failure under SCP by adopting a plan amendment, effective for employees hired on or after January 1, 2006, to provide that there is no service eligibility requirement under the plan and submitting the amendment to the Service for a determination letter. QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Guest Sieve Posted August 21, 2009 Posted August 21, 2009 Remember that the corrections in EPCRS are safe-harbor correction methods, rather than mandatory correction methods. Other approaches may be acceptable.
blue Posted August 21, 2009 Posted August 21, 2009 Search the Benefits Link Newsletter for Sungard's article "IRS Expands Correction Procedure to Permit Correction of 401(k) Excess Amounts" on August 10, 2009.
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