I am preparing a Form 8955-SSA with only 1 participant to report. This participant terminated in 2002 and was paid in 2009 so they will be a Code D. If the participant counts on line 6 are 0, do I need to answer question 8 regarding individual statements?

I've taken over a plan that has 3 key man policies. The policies are not part of the account balances of the participant for whom the life insurance was purchased. Are the premium payments considered to be a profit sharing source allocation to participants? The prior administrator did not consider these amounts as an allocable contribution.

Say an individual gets married at age 30 and gets divorced at age 40.

He terminates from a company just prior to marriage.

He leaves that company with:

a defined benefit pension of $500 per month payable at age 62.

Since this entire benefit was accrued prior to marriage it would seem that it would not be part of marital property.

At age 30 (marriage) the the pvab was say 10,000.

And at age 40 (divorce) the pvab is say 20,000.

So, in essence he earned 10k on his pension while married but it is not marital property.

Now, turning to his account balance.

He leaves the same company with a 401k account of 20k at time of marriage, which he rolled into an IRA account.

At time of divorce the account is worth 40k. No contributions were added to the account as it is all investment income.

Should the 20k of investment income (though based on the basis that was all pre marriage) be considered marital property?

And say now, a couple of years after divorce (but prior to any division of assets) the account is worth 30k. Should the loss of 10k be marital property?

In conclusion, is the analysis of the determination of marital property related to the account balance a subjective analysis or is there precise law on the account balance portion that is marital property?

thanks

After making monthly payments as required on his participant loan, Participant ceases to make loan repayments as of July 31, 2010.

The plan sponsor provides for a cure period through the last day of the calendar quarter following the calendar quarter in which the required installment payment was due.

The cure period for Participant therefore ends on December 31, 2010. Participant does not make any loan repayments by December 31, 2010.

Question: Since the cure period ended December 31, 2010, and Participant did not make a payment by December 31, 2010, is the defaulted loan balance deemed distributed as of December 31, 2010, the last day of the cure period? Or is it deemed distributed as of January 1, 2011, the first day after the cure period expired, since Participant had through the end of December 31, 2010, to make a payment?

Is it permissible to 100% vest participants who are losing their jobs because the division in which they work is being dissolved?

This is not a partial plan termination (not 20%).

Could vesting only the few participants affected be justified as "event-based vesting", when other participants in the plan, who are not in the terminated division, would not have their vesting accelerated?

Thank you

Is there an actuarial difference, or a sacrifice of flexibility, if someone starts collecting a pension early, when it's still up in the air whether the marriage will last and whether there will be a QDRO, vs. waiting to start the pension only after knowing for sure whether or not there will be a divorce and QDRO?

If there is an actuarial difference or sacrifice in flexibility, would that equally affect the participant and the potential alternate payee? Or would the difference tend to favor one party over the other?

Thanks in advance for any insight.

Prior to sale transaction, seller has QBs on COBRA. Upon closing, Seller ceases to provide health insurance and the Buyer takes the QBs onto its plan.

What type of election period does the Buyer have to provide these QBs? Must they provide them with a new 60 day election period or some other (shorter) period to elect?

Ok, here we are again with more questions than answers for amending 5500s because of an erroneous plan number. Thanks to all who have posted on a different thread. We are amending the 5500s at issue and we are sending a note to the IRS that we have amended the 5500s. Question came up today about the 2008 5500 Sch. C. The 2008 schedule listed payments to two service providers. Should those amounts be reported as direct compensation on the new and not necessarily improved Sch C that will have to be uploaded? Does it matter? Thanks in advance!

A company has 401(k) plan with a safe harbor nonelective contribution. Only NHCEs are eligible. Their CEO is leaving. In the course of putting together documents for his departure, we realized that he has been participating in the safe harbor contribution since the beginning of his employment in 2006.

My initial thought would be self-correction by plan amendment, given that it's permissible to have HCEs participate in safe harbor nonelective contributions (the company simply chose not to in initially structuring its plan). However, this obviously could result in having to make additional contributions for other HCEs who were not included in the safe harbor contributions. Any thoughts regarding the plan amendment correction and/or any other potential corrections?

I'm establishing a 403(b)(9) retirement income account Plan for the church association for which I am the Executive Director and I see language in the plan document that provides for Deemed IRA's and Roth IRA's. Since the Trustee is the Association, must the Trustee apply to the IRS for approval to act as Trustee for those accounts? This will be a Texas Trust.

IRS has granted extensions to file returns in disaster affected areas until October 31 in many areas on the East Coast (see IR-2011-87). Accountants are telling me the relief does not extent the date by which tax payments are due. They are asking whether the contribution deadline under IRC 404(a)(6)** is extended or not.

I believe the payment deadline is referenced to the Due Date of the Return - Including Extensions. I don't think the due date for tax deposits should have any impact?

What are you telling your clients about the 404(a)(6) deadline for 2010 income tax returns that have been extended to Oct 31, 2011?

thx

** Section 404(a)(6) provides in relevant part that, for purposes of section

404(a)(3), "a taxpayer shall be deemed to have made a payment on the last day of

the preceding taxable year if the payment is on account of such taxable year and

is made not later than the time prescribed by law for filing the return for such

taxable year (including extensions thereof)."

For 2010 -

MRC is 100K

Max deductible is $200K.

Can a Sole-prop on extension contribute the 100K by 9/15 to meet MRC and contribute an additional 100K between 9/15 and 10/15 for deduction purposes?

If so would the additional 100K be shown on the 2011 SB for minimum funding?

We have a new client that has a tax exempt 457(b) plan that has not been updated for about 10 years (before the 2003 regulations).

How strict is the IRS with regard to document compliance in this area? Would a retroactive amendment be in order here? Does anyone have any experience with 457(b) document issues and the IRS? I'm trying to get a sense of how much leeway we have with the document.

Here is an ancient question: were government plans supposed to amend for CRA '00? The change seems miniscule but I have a reviewer asking about proof of timely compliance for a takeover plan. Sigh. I looked here earlier and there were a couple of old posts from someone asking this question but I don't think I saw any replies...Thanks for any input.

Plan terminated and final distribution of plan assets were 3/31/11. Can a 5558 be filed to extend 5500 due date from 10/31/11 to 1/15/12??? For some reason i'm thinking a plan that has made final distributions could not extend 5500. Thanks.

401k safe harbor plan has not been funded for 2010 due to death of owner. Who knows what to do in this case? Does the spouse take over as trustee and then become responsible for the funding? Since it is very likely the plan will not be funded by the 9/15/11 deadline, does the plan automatically become a regular 401k and subject to testing? So many issues to deal with, don't know where to begin. Thank you.

May a plan charge interest on an overpayment? I thought it could, but I am having trouble finding any case law that is on point. I would appreciate any help out there!

Okay these always have twists to them

Corbel Prototype

1 year/ age 21/ entry 1/1 and 7/1

Employee "Joe" DOH is 5/11/09

Terminated 12/31/09

Rehire 5/23/10

Initial computation period

5/11/09-5/11/2010 525 hours

Switch to Calendar Year

1/1/10-12/31/2010 less than 1000, but over 500

From Date of Rehire

5/23/10-5/23/11 over 1000 hours

So if you only use the anniversary date of computation period from Original Date of hire - he might come in on 1/1/12.

If you start over as of his rehire date he comes in 7/1/11

So can including past service keep an employee from becoming a participant longer than if someone that was just hired.

Bob, Joes friend, was hired 5/23/10 , not rehired, on that date and will come in on 7/1/11.

So will Joe and Bob have different entry dates because Joe was a Part time Student Employee in the past

I have read past posts that state that you can only use the Anniverary Comutation Period on the Original Date of Hire, but it doesn't seem fair to me that his past service should hurt him.

Of course this business is not logical.

Thanks for your help

Pat

Can you use the owner's SS# as the employer's EIN if they do not have an EIN? It’s a small solo 401k plan. The 1099 is for the owner and is being issued by the owner. There is no withholding or anything.

the employer told employees all year last year that the plan had a discretionary match. the plan has 1000 hours and last day rule requirement to accrue the match. time has come to fund the match for last year and the company has no money. are they required to fund the match or can they just say we can't do the match. it is discretionary anyway.