Under Title III of CHIPRA, it states -

(g) Opt-Out permitted for any month - A state shall establish a process for permitting the parent of a targeted low-income child receiving a premium assistance subsidy to disenroll th child from the qualified employer-sponsored coverage and enroll the child in, and receive child health assistance under the State child health plan, effective on the first day of any month for which the child is eligible for such assistantance and in a manner that ensures continuity of coverage for the child.

To me this sounds like the employee-parent may elect to cancel coverage for the child to enroll the child in a CHIP plan that was established under title xxi of social security.

However, Section 125 does not allow coverage paid for on a pre-tax basis to be canceled to enroll a child in a CHIP plan established or funded by title xxi of social security. It only recognizes Medicaid coverage under title XIX to be coverage to allow cancellation of a dependent.

Does anyone have any words of wisdom on this?

I am a qualified plan administator for 401(a) plans. This is my first entry into the cafeteria plan forum so please be kind as to my terminology. If additional details are needed, please let me know and I will try to get them.

I received a call from one of my colleagues regarding an ADP/ACP test he was processing. He said that the Plan Sponsor has a Section 125 plan and that any money that is "left over" can be transferred from the cafeteria to their 401(k) Plan. From speaking to some of other colleagues, they thought that this may have been an option many years ago for a very short period of time.

1) Has anyone heard of this? Is this possible?

2) If so, can anyone provide details and a good reference to read?

3) Would this be considered a pre-tax (401(k)) deferral and be tested in the ADP test?

4) If not, was it ever possible?

Thanks in advance. Any help is greatly appeaciated.

1. What is the deadline for amending a plan to provide for non-spouse rollovers assuming, of course, that the plan does want to offer them?

2. Is it possible to "retroactively" amend a calendar year plan NOW to permit this option for 2008 and ongoing?

The plan is a 1-person plan and the participant died last year, so there are no "discrimination" type issues to consider. Seems low risk to me, but I would appreciate any insights.

Thanks, folks!

Act Sec. 101.

(j) NOTICE OF FUNDING-BASED LIMITATION ON CERTAIN FORMS OF DISTRIBUTION. --

--The plan administrator of a single-employer plan shall provide a written notice to plan participants and beneficiaries within 30 days --

(1) after the plan has become subject to a restriction described in paragraph (1) or (3) of section 206(g)),

I know some of these have been asked before, but I'm looking for consensus.

1) Lets say my 2008 AFTAP is 75% and my 2009 AFTAP is 65%. I gave the appropriate notice in 2008. Do I need to give another notice in 2009 even though nothing changed? The statute says the notice is required "after the plan has become subject to a restriction". I was subject to the restriction in 2008, nothing new in 2009, so it seems that no additional notice is required. Agree?

2) Lets say my 2008 AFTAP was 85% and the 2009 AFTAP is 75%. My plan only pays lump sums less than $5,000 and therefore the restrictions have no practical impact. Do I still need to give a notice? I think the conservative answer would be yes, but does everyone still agree?

Is there any reason to amend Cafeteria Plans for the recent changes in COBRA?

Participant takes unpaid leave on January 2, 2008 which is the date of his last loan repayment. Does loan default on 1/2/09 or is it possible to inerpret 72(p) to allow a cure period to allow payment to begin prior to 6/30/09? Participant will be going back on payroll next week.

72-(p) Q&A 10 does not specifically state this but IRS Q&A with the ABA in 2003 stated that the cure period would allow a loan to extend beyond 5 years if the last payment of the loan was missed.

Loan policy would not prohibit this interpretation.

Thanks

When producing the benefit calculations on a 2008 Defined Benefit Plan and or Cash Balance Plan. When providing the prelimanary data for calculation from the clients, we are finding that the clients hesitate in providing this data. Why, is it such a hassle to make clients understand and or primarily the CPA's tax preparers that we must have line 31 and or the W2 of course to calculation the required benefits and required contributions for the Defined Benefit Plan. It is like we play ping pong with the CPA saying they need our calculation before they can give us the tax return document. What if any can be explained other than what I have said above can be told to the CPA and the client that in order to calculate the contribution and benefit for the 2008 tax reporting year is to show proof of the income on either providing the W-2 and or K-1 and or Schedule C and SE, also another questions is it possible for a client to have a K-1 and provide a SE as well....would these both be applicable when providing tax information on a partnership?

I was wondering it is possible to make real-estate investments (non-mortgage) in foreign countries (specifically I'm looking at India) through a Roth IRA account. If so, where can I find information about custodians who will allow this?

Being a newbie, I did some research on the existing topics on real-estate investments through Roth IRA, but did not find an answer to the question. In my case, I already sent some money for the real-estate investment. It is through an LLC registered in India and I have no mortgage. In the ideal case, I would like to open a Roth IRA and designate some of the money to have come from there. Can this be done? I'll truly appreciate it if you could suggest some sources where I can learn about this and other topics. Thanks!

Plan provides for unreduced retirement at age 62. Participant retirees at 62 with 2,000/month ab payable at age 65, so may elect life only of 2,000/month. Plan's AFTAP=70% and participant elects lump sum of $300,000 and participant elects to receive $150,000 and defers election of remainder. It just so happens that at 65, AFTAP=80% so restriction is removed. So, what does Plan pay?

(a) 1,000 x a₆₅ using interest/mortality at 65

(b) 1,000 x a₆₅ using interest/mortality at 62

© 150,000 x (1+i)³, where "i" is first segment intrest rate at 62

(d) 150,000

(e) Something else

I vote for © as being most reasonable and equitable and preserves the notion that the participant actually elected a lump sum.

Any thoughts or suggestions?

We have a husband and wife DB plan (not PBGC covered). The husband just died. Currently plan assets are about $330,000, and the following benefit liabilities exist:

Death Benefit payable to wife: $425,000 (of which about 1/3 represents the required survivor benefit)

Retirement benefit payable to wife: $125,000

The last AFTAP put us at about 73%.

The business can't continue without the husband. Obviously we do not have enough assets to pay both the death benefit and the retirement benefit. Everyone would like to get rid of this plan as soon as possible.

Any thoughts as to whether there is any way under the sun to accomplish??

All suggestions appreciated!

For 2008 I believe we can use any val date. We have a small plan that seems better suited for an EOY val than its current BOY val date. However, if we change it to a EOY valuation, is there any guidance on how to do the AFTAP for the first year of changing the valuation date ? Normally an EOY val AFTAP uses prior EOY valuation numbers (per technical corrections act; IRS guidance), but in this case, the prior year was a BOY valuation, can we still "look-back" to the prior year Schedule B for our AFTAP numbers given the prior year was a BOY valuation ?

calling Tom Poje....HELP

I have a Crystal top heavy report that I obtained from you some time ago. (I work on a multiple employer plan for which this report is and has been invaluable to me as a timesaver:)!

I am on version 11 and when I went to run the report for 2009 top heavy status...it isn't working properly . The participant balances are huge. I verified the database in Crystal to update the fields but still no luck.

Any ideas?

Client received QDRO directing 1/2 of a participant's Options in the Co,'s NQDCP to be repapered to his (now ex) wife's name. Client asserts that because their Plan Document says Options can't be assigned, they do not have to comply. I would think the document is speaking to a participant's ability to assign his/her Options, not a court's ability to do so.

I also heard a comment from another party that ended like this "oh, that's right, it's a non-qual Plan, so the QDRO can't dictate".

Really? Does anyone know - Can the Plan Document actually supercede the court order and is it true that the fact it is an NQDCP really make a difference??

Has anyone heard that guidance regarding additional funding relief is about to be issued regarding the ability to use any of the "applicable months" that applied to the segment rates to the full yield curve as well for 2009 plan years??

I am looking for information on restrictions that may exist for a company to change it's contribution structure in a 401(a) MPP. From my research, I have ascertained that a prospective change is possible with an amendment of the plan. This plan, however also has a matching component, based on an employee's one time irrevocable election. Are there any strings attached to the irrevocable?

Finally, I am also looking to see if there are any restrictions (outside of testing) to implementing the change under a grandfathering system, where current employees receiving the match/contributions are not effected, but newly eligible employees are under the new contribution structure. Any help or guidance is welcome!!!

Is there a model notice available yet?

I have been working with 401(k) plans for quite some time but haven't ventured into the 403(b) arena. Since the recent regulation with the requirement of documentation of 403(b)'s, what is the difference between the two in the areas of compliance and tax reporting? Are they pretty much the same now?

Suppose a company's tax year ends June 30th. On April 30, 2009, they establish a new DB plan. The plan year ends April 30. The effective date of the plan is July 1, 2008 (a 10-month initial plan year).

Thus, we have a valuation on July 1, 2008 and another on May 1, 2009. Both of these plan year beginnings are within the company tax year that ends June 30, 2009. Assume no DC plan.

They make full contributions for the July 1, 2008 short plan year and the May 1, 2009 plan year before their tax return is filed for their tax year ending June 30, 2009.

Under 404, can they deduct both of these contribution on their June 30, 2009 tax return?

Can a self-funded health plan charge its participants a share of the plan's administration fees?

Participant takes unpaid leave on January 2, 2008 which is the date of his last loan repayment. Does loan default on 1/2/09 or is it possible to inerpret 72(p) to allow a cure period to allow payment to begin prior to 6/30/09?

72-(p) Q&A 10 does not specifically state this but IRS Q&A with the ABA in 2003 stated that the cure period would allow a loan to extend beyond 5 years if the last payment of the loan was missed.

Loan policy would not prohibit this interpretation.

Thanks