does anyone know of any tax regs that would permit a direct rollover from a US 401(k) to a Canadian "Qualified" plan?

Son is the bene of multiple IRA's of his deceased father.

Son wants to consolidate inherited IRA's under one custodian (by means of custodian to custodian direct transfer).

Can son also consolidate ALL the inherited IRA's (from father) to ONE aggregate inherited IRA?

I don't see why not. All IRA's from father; all MRD taken with same LE. But I'm uncomfortable with aggregating different inherited IRA's. Obviously safe harbor is just to keep them separate IRAs (custodian was unsure). I know that a bene can not contribute to an inherited IRA but if one is only combining inherited IRAs that is not a contribtion (I think).

Has anyone done this? If accounts need to be kept separate what did you title the different inherited IRA's?

Reg Jones

A couple, whose income exceeded the $100,000 AGI limit, received permission from the IRS to recharacterize their 1998 conversion. The deadline to recharacterize is 6-months after the date the letter was issued.

Our district currently offers only part-time employment to kindergarten teachers (0.7 FTE) but is thinking of running a pilot program to turn a few classrooms into full-day kindergarten. That would make those teachers 1.0 FTE.

If the program fails and those teachers are returned to part-time service after only one or two years, how will this affect their service credit?

Currently, as we understand it, changing one time from 0.7 to 1.0 would allow the teachers to continue to count all their .7 years as full years.

Must the 3% non-elective safe harbor contribution in a 401(k) plan be made to all "eligible" employees or only to those eligible and particpating by making elective deferrral contributions.

Can anyone supply a list of ESOP provisions which must be added to a 401(k) plan when the plan is converted to a KSOP?

An employer offers a 403(B) program to its employees, but matches and makes profit sharing contributions to a qualified plan. If the employer did not make matching contributions or profit sharing contributions, I would conclude that no 5500 was necessary. But since the employer is now providing funding with regard to the 403(B) arrangement, is this fact enough to create a situation where the employer involvement is enough that the 403(B) plan should file a Form 5500? Yes, the qualified plan does file a 5500.

I have a 401(K) plan requiring a QNEC along with a comparability plan. Both plans have different eligibility dates, 401(k) permitting immediately eligibility and comparability having a one year wait. When determining 15% of eligible compensation, which plans compensation would be used? Any help would be appreciated.

Karen

How would an FSA be handled in this case?

Our company recently won a contract that has an expected

start date of Mar 1, 2002. To clarify my employment

situation for this scenario, my employer will remain the

same (Company #1) until the new contract begins and we

become part of a joint venture (Company #2). Company #1 is

providing a 2002 benefits package which has a larger FSA

provision than either the existing package or the future

package at the new company:

2001 - Company #1 - $2500

2002 - Company #1 - $4000

2002 - Company #2 - $2000

I'm interested in the medical portion of the FSA, not the

dependent care. Here are my questions:

1. If I choose to participate at the $4000 level for Jan/Feb and

use all of it in Jan/Feb, what is my liability to Company #1 when

I begin employment with Company #2?

A. $4000/12 months * 2 months participation in plan =

$666.66

B. $4000/2 months participation =$2000

C. other - please explain

2. What happens if the start date slips to Apr 1, 2002?

3. Where can I find legal guidance in the IRS codes? I know

it's under Section 125 but where exactly? I've researched their

web site to no avail and have called them but they don't

expect to get back to me within 2 weeks.

4. If I choose to seek legal guidance, who should I use? I

talked to my tax preparer(EA) and he didn't know much

since this isn't his specialty.

Thanks,

Dan

Under the 2001 EGTRRA my employer now qualifies for and is offering a 457(B) plan beginning 2002 through Fidelity Retirement Services.

We have a pre-exisitng 403(B) retirement plan and a defined benefit retiurment plan.

My employer is a not-for-profit organization and a NON-governmental organization.

Our staff offered this plan are highly compensated employees and participate in NONqualified retirement plans.

I understand the IRS has not yet provided guidance regarding rollover of 457(b)distributions for NONgovernmental employers.

Therefore, this plan is written such that at retirement or termination of employment the 457(B) account balance is distributed in a LUMP SUM to the employee...a taxable event.

I compared 457(B) PRE-tax dollar investment accrual vs. AFTER-tax dollar investment accrual over 15 years with an 8% return.

Because we will be in the highest income tax bracket (assuming current 2001 rates) the tax on the 457(B) LUMP SUM distribution will essentially wipe out any tax advantaged savings of the plan when compared to investing PRE-tax dollars.

Therefore, enrolling in this new 457(B) plan does not make sense unless distributions can be spread out throughout retirement assuming my income tax bracket falls.

What are the prospects for NONgovernmental 457(B) plan distributions to be either spread out over retirement or rolled over to other plans (ie. 403b) to avoid LUMP SUM pay outs?

Thanks.

I'm doing some research on 401K performance, and I need the history of the 402 (g) Deferral Limits from about 1989.

Does anyone have a source for finding this data?

TIA

Frank

Now retired, my school district contracted with an insurance company for a 457 group annuity in 1996, complete with withdrawal penalties of 20% at year 1 to 5% year 15(no matter the age or retirement eligibility).When the District asked us to sign up for this annuity, there was no mention, spoken or written, of the withdrawal or surrender penalties, or for that matter an annual asset management fee of .25% deducted from the Fund. How does this comply with the provision that, "The plan must be amended to provide that it will be impossible----for any part of the value of the annuity contract to be used for, or diverted to, purposes other than for the exclusive benefit of plan participants and their beneficiaries"?

I know that safe harbor plans using the matching option may discontinue the safe harbor match mid-year, but must provide a 30 day notice to employees before the match ceases.

But there do not seem to be a lot of guidelines on when (and what must occur) in other cases (non safe harbor plans) where a fixed formula match is being amended -- either to no match, a discretionary match, or another fixed formula match.

Are there any special employee notice requirements in these cases? I know 204(h) (now 4980F) does not apply to profit sharing plans...but it seems some type of notice would be necessary. Just a regular Summary of Material Modifications?

I know there are anti-cutback issues to worry about. Therefore I am looking for comments or confirmation on the following approaches:

If the match is determined based on the entire plan year, it generally cannot be changed mid-plan year (unless there is an "employed on the last day of the year" accrual requirement and the amendment is done prior to that date). (Correct?)

If the match is determined based on each pay period, it can be changed effective for a future pay period. (Correct?)

Thanks.

PART I:

Knowing that *new* 401(k) plans (that are not "successor plans") have up until their effective date to get the safe harbor notice distributed...

And *existing 401(k) plans* adding safe harbor provisions must provide the safe harbor notice between 90 and 30 days prior to the beginning of the Plan Year...

And *existing profit sharing plans* adding 401(k) provisions and safe harbor have until the effective date of the 401(k) provisions to get the notices out...

WHAT ABOUT a plan that is being set up in December (with a 12/31 year-end) and wishes to do profit sharing only for 2001, and specify 401(k) provisions and safe harbor beginning 1/1/2002? Does this plan have until 1/1/2002 to get the safe harbor notices out, or should they have been provided by 12/1?

PART II:

Say we are setting up a brand new safe harbor 401(k) plan in June, which has a 12/31 year end. The employer provides the safe harbor notices before 7/1, and therefore specifies a 7/1 effective date for the 401(k) provisions, but it chooses to specify a 1/1 effective date (retroactive) for the rest of the plan. Say they are using the 3% nonelective option. Is the safe harbor contribution for the first year only based on compensation from 7/1 - 12/31? And if so, does this same apporach hold true for a profit sharing plan that adds 401(k) and safe harbor provisions in the middle of a plan year?

Thanks.

A husband and wife are each covered by their own 403(B) plans. They are getting divorced and will have a court order (not a QDRO) to divide their respective 403(B)s. In 2002, will each ex-spouse be able to roll over his/her alternate payee distribution into his/her own 403(B)? Would the answer be the same if there is a QDRO? Cites would be helpful.

Under a benefit formula that provides that average annual compensation means the high five of the immediately preceding 10 years of compensation, can an accrued benefit be reduced on account of decreased compensation late in a participant's career? I am concerned not with 411(d)(6) (regarding cutbacks resulting from amendments) but with 411(B)(1)(G), stating that an accrued benefit cannot be reduced due to an increase in age or SERVICE (this particular individual would have had a much higher benefit under the Plan if she had retired 10 years ago when her comp was high instead of continuing her service with the company).

Now here's an added twist: what if the individual has been receiving workers' compensation benefits for the past 10 years (and therefore has no plan compensation), can her benefit be reduced to zero? This doesn't seem palatable given ERISA's intended purpose of protecting employees' retirement benefits, and yet this is the conclusion I am reaching. Has anyone encountered a similar scenario? Any advice or guidance would be very much appreciated!

Please help? Heres the senario:

ABC company had a SIMPLE IRA for 2000 and 2001. But in the middle of 2001 the company changed it's Tax ID#, and company name. Does the company have to adopt new SIMPLE IRA? If so can the company adopt the plan for 2001 even though it's past the Oct 1 deadline?

I have a prospective client with a current Target Benefit who wants to amend to a Cross-Tested plan.

Can he just amend, or does the Target Benefit need to be terminated, resulting in 100% vesting for all employees prior to setting up the Cross-Tested?

Is it possible to suspend contributions to a Target Benefit (with proper notice to employees) and leave it open but in frozen status, while operating the Cross-tested plan?

Basically, is there any way to avoid the full vesting requirement and still set up the Cross-tested plan?

Thanks

I participate in a SARSEP plan. I have been doing some research and discussing this with Fidelity but believe they are not confident in the answer they have given me. My questions is this, for 2002, does the maximum contribution to the SARSEP increase from 15% to 25%. This is the only retirement plan we have and I would like to make sure all employees get the maximum benefit available to them. Thanks.

does anyone know a good international 401k advisor for Taiwan's situation?

Thank you