One of the alternative methods of satisfying the actual deferral percentage (ADP) test is to “recharacterize” elective deferrals made by highly compensated employees as nonelective, after-tax, contributions. This has the effect of lowering the ADP for the highly compensated group.

Has anyone ever used this method? Why was this method used (what made it preferable to other correction methods such as distribution of the excess contributions)?

If this was an asset sale then Company B still exists, unless it has also been disolved. Company B even as a shell company is still the plan sponsor. Company B is still the plan sponsor for all periods of time that the plan of Company B is in existence.

Have they looked at the "same desk rule" implications relating to employees that work for Company A in their same capacity as under Company B?

Please help! A plan must rid itself of life insurance contracts, which are owned by 9 plan participants. One option is to allow the 9 to purchase the contracts from the plan, by complying with the DOL rules to avoid prohibited transaction problems. In order to do that, the 9 must pay the cash surrender value of the policies to the plan. If they do that, is the distribution of the policies to them taxable income? Any cites would be appreciated.

Also, the plan can borrow against the policy to reduce the cash surrender value of the policies, thereby making it easier for them to be purchased by the plan. I assume the loan proceeds are deposited into the participant's account? What happens to the loan when the policy is then distributed to participants?

I have already put in 40 hrs into this pay period and I need to take time off this week. Can my employeer make me take my vacation time even though I have put in my 40 hours for this work week?

Is regular 401(a) and 410(B) nondiscrimination testing required for a discretionary employer contribution to a 403(B) plan, based on years of service, where there is only one HCE in the plan (albeit one who would receive the service based benefit)? My understanding is that no discrimination issues are raised if only NHCEs are eligible for the service based benefit.

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What is the tax effect of establishing a qulalified plan when contributions have already been made during the year when SIMPLE contributions have been made?

Can they be disgorged similar to excess IRA contributions? Early Distributions penalty?

or do you just W-2 them?

I guess the question is what the effect of SIMPLE disqualification?

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Does anyone have any information about the tax treatment of unused vacation or sick time that is donated from one employee to another?

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Does anyone have any information about the tax treatment of unused vacation or sick time that is donated from one employee to another?

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Does anyone have any real experience with "buy backs"; how you track them on the recordkeeping side?

In 1998 I converted a traditional IRA to a Roth. I met all the conversion requirements, no problem. My broker rolled over the assets into new Roth account.

When my tax preparer did my 1998 return, he didnt report the conversion, nor did he put the 1/4 spread to get taxed.

To complicate, I did my 1999 return and didnt report any income from the rollover.

Can I amend my 1998 return to elect the Roth conversion, and take the 4 year spread?

Also, my brokerage account has a Roth IRA in the title, what should I do? Roll it back to a traditional account if I cant amend.

Any assistance will be appreciated.

[This message has been edited by mrg (edited 05-03-2000).]

We prepare a few hundred 5500 C/R & EZs for clients. What authority - power of attorney, etc. - do we need to E-File for the client?

Can anyone suggest where a good place is to purchase CBT's on 401k plans and administration? Any help or suggestions would be appreciated.

Does anyone know the difference between a 403(B) and a 501©-18. We have a CPA that advised that a client was preparing W2s as if the plan was a 501©-18?

Our company has two pension plans; one for sales associates and one for balance of employees. The office staff was grandfathered with the age change in 1989 at age 60 while the sales staff was not grandfathered and age was raised to 65. Now company is converting sales staff to Independent Contractor status, an failure to apply grandfather clause consistently will cost many sales associates pension benefits since the early retirement reduction of 4.8 % per year will reduce lump sum awards. Is it legal, ethical, or what can be done???

Not yet. IRS has said informally they are "seriously considering" an extension of the remedial amendment period because of the delay in the full opening of the GUST process.

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I have a PS plan that times distributions to terminees who are less than 100% vested to be after 5 1-year breaks in service. Anyone who terminates and is 100% vested, is eligible to receive their benefit after the valuation date following their DOT.

The client wants everyone to wait for 5 1-year BIS but I don't think I can can amend the plan to change the timing for 100% vested terminees without violating 411(d)(6).

If I understand correctly, I can amend the plan going forward and any contributions and earnings applied to a participant after the amendment date can wait the five years for distribution but not anything before.

Does this sound right?

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EAC

It depends on whether the plan is using the "deemed" hardship definition (which includes the suspension requirement) or the "facts and circumstances" definition (which does not). I'd start by reviewing the plan document, you may not have a big problem. In terms of penalties, you're looking at a qualification defect if your plan does require suspension.

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Jon C. Chambers

Principal

Schultz Collins Lawson Chambers, Inc.

(415) 291-3004

My company is going to institute a welcome "kit" I was wondering if anyone has any ideas for a fun way of approaching this, obviously being very cost efficient.

Thank you

I am down to a handful of participants that we cannot locate in a plan termination. I have already used the IRS letter forwarding program. Any suggestions about a good and inexpensive private locator service?

I have the following scenario and questions and may needs some direction in finding answer(s). TIA.

Scenario

A California Professional Corporation (PC, physicians) has its benefits managed by a C Corporation MSO. The MSO bills and collects on behalf of the physicians. The physicians have an employee contract with the PC. The physicians after paying MSO and billing/collection fees (all percent based) have an hourly rate for wages determined in a variably and non-uniformed fashion in relationship to actual collections. In some situations the hourly rate of wages is subsidized to a significant degree from retained earnings from other physicians (this is approximately 1/3 of physicians subsidizing 2/3 of physicians). In addition to retained hourly wages by some supporting the hourly wages of others there is subsidizing of the 401(K) "employer" match and any residual remaining is disbursed to those physicians having had wages retained.

Now the MSO/PC is moving towards a Money Purchase Plan (MPP). The MPP allows greater "employer" contribution, which under this construct is created by retaining wages that may or may not be heavily subsidized by other physicians, and will create more pressure to "cross-subsidize" amongst physicians.

Apologies in advance for what seems to me a very convoluted plan.

Questions

1. Is this proper?

2. Are there any ERISA issues?

3. Are there any Medicare compliance issues?

4. Are there any issues with the MSO retaining up to a year the retained earnings of physicians that are going to placed sometime in the MPP accounts? Is there a problem with MSO interest generated with this retension of earnings?

regards/tim