My thinking is that this really isn't an "overpayment," since the participant is entitled to the accrued benefit, just not in the lump sum form at the time they wanted it. Since the 110% test is part of the 401(a)(4) regs, this is a non-discrimination failure. I'm thinking the best way to correct this is to try to comply with 92-76 retroactively. Putting the money in escrow probably wouldn't work after the distribution is made, but securing a letter of credit to repay if needed might work. What do you think?