masteff

This week I had to help someone manually review and delete 15,000 spam emails that had accumulated over roughly 10 months. Given: 1) it would be easier to setup a new email address for this person. 2) it would be likely that the person would do the same things that started the spam and would end up in the same situation, so #1 isn't really a perfect solution. 3) I'd like something that I can control from my PC to ensure that the spam filtering isn't turned off. What I'd like: I'd like something that can run remotely from my PC (presumably via POP3 access). I used one program about 4 years ago that would check the server, flag and delete known spam. Then when I'd run Outlook, I wouldn't even see the spam had been there. I'd like to be able to later review what was deleted and possibly restore any "false positives". I've done web searches and have found a few programs already. But I was hoping someone else might be using one and have a specific recommendation or two. PS - should add that this is for a home user account, not for a server. Although... if there's a particularly good server solution that's not too expensive, we could bounce the mail thru my brother's website, so let me know.

It's allowable. http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-tege/rollover_chart.pdf

I'd encourage you to look at 529 plans, starting w/ your own state. Your state may have a state income deduction for contributions, which could reduce your or your parent's taxes as well (but it generally has to be that same state's plan to get the deduction (eg Oklahoma won't let you deduct for contributions to Illinois or elsewhere)). The following webpage, and the site it's on, might be helpful: http://www.savingforcollege.com/financial_...our_savings.php One advantage of a 529 (versus a Roth IRA) is that withdrawals used for education are not added to your next year's FAFSA. So using the 529 savings for its purpose doesn't reduce what you can get later.

The trick is the odds of hitting a winning combo may or may not be better, but they've adjusted their paytables accordingly. You'd have to find the probability of each payout event, multiply it by the payout amount, and the totals would result in an expected value for the game. An expected value over 100% means you'd make money over time. The further under 100%, the more money you'd lose the longer you played. Excel has a function (in the Analysis Toolpak add-on) for the hypergeometric distribution (basically that combination formula above but in easy Excel format). (I'm doing this slightly from memory, so adjust accordingly...) Total number of balls = 75 Number drawn each round = 20 Number picked by player = (varies but for sake of example...) 10 Number of winners "hit" by player = (varies each round but for sake of example...) 4 So, you pick 10 numbers and hit 4 of them... what's the probability? =hypgeomdist(4,10,20,75) = .16944 Pick 4 and hit 4 =hypgeomdist(4,4,20,75) = .00399 A website that I like is called "the wizard of odds". A quick google will find the website w/ that name. He's a math professor in Vegas and provides good analysis of a lot of games. Video poker, depending on the paytable, can sometimes be your best electronic game. EDIT: hmm, I must be missing some small piece w/ that Excel formula, tried 20 numbers and 1 hit and it gave me a smaller chance than 4 numbers and 1 hit, which doesn't make sense. Oh well, you can play with it. Between the various answers, you're on the right track. (on further thought, it's the odds of "exactly" 1 right, not "more than" 1 right; w/ 20 picks it's likely to have more than 1 right, so now it makes sense to me.) EDIT: here you go... per the tables here: http://wizardofodds.com/keno/kenoapx3.html the probablity of getting 6 out of 6 in basic keno is 0.00013

As this will be the last 941 that will be potentially incorrect and as you're new to the position and weren't in charge for the better portion of the quarter, would it be totally inappropriate to simply ask J to sign one last 941 since he's better familiar w/ it than you? "One last one since you ran most of those payrolls, J?" Then you can start signing them in future quarters?

Per IRS Notice 2008-30, it remains the same. http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-drop/n-08-30.pdf In addition, for taxable years beginning before January 1, 2010, an individual can not make a qualified rollover contribution from an eligible retirement plan other than a Roth IRA if, for the year the eligible rollover distribution is made, he or she has modified adjusted gross income (“MAGI”) exceeding $100,000 or is married and files a separate return.

See 1.411(d)-4 Q&A-2(b)(2)(iii) --(A) In-kind distributions payable under defined contribution plans in the form of marketable securities other than employer securities. If a defined contribution plan includes an optional form of benefit under which benefits are distributed in the form of marketable securities, other than securities of the employer, that optional form of benefit may be modified by a plan amendment that substitutes cash for the marketable securities as the medium of distribution. If the plan includes employer stock, then the way I read example 1 is that you have to first eliminate the er stock as an investment option, get everyone moved out of that investment, and can then eliminate it as a distribution option.

Kim posted what I was going to say but in shorter words. Have to compare the time-value of the loan under both scenarios and that will be influenced by 1) rate of return versus interest rate and 2) plan interest rate versus commercial interest rate. And have to keep Disco's point in mind that some plans have high fees which effectively reduces return under that scenario.

What if you approach it from the angle of a change in coverage under the spouse's plan? Then consistency wouldn't seem to apply. The spouse (B) should be able to elect family coverage due to the new dependent and the employee (A) should be able to drop current coverage due to that new coverage. ???

As the OP's 2nd post cites the consistency rules, I guess I'm getting confused... does anything other than Section 125 have a consistency rule when discussing health plan enrollment changes? TuckerB, perhaps you can also specify if your question relates specifically to the Section 125 change of status rules. (Some people are overly literal and other assume the moon and everything else is included.)

I'm w/ Janet. Don't even let them go down any path that results in taxation (even if paid by the brokerage). If Jim's not talking to the branch manager at this point, then he needs to move up the ladder.

First, see GBurn's comment. If they reduce the salary never the less, then it's a breach of contract. It may require legal action to then gain the result of it being a termination. The real question is how do you respond to a reduction, and that should be to immediately follow GBurn's comment if you haven't already by that time.

That's one of the problems of using a family member.... you've given that person plenty of opportunity to help and he's not come thru for you. Go back to the Dept of Labor. They are best resource that is at no expense to you. Part of their job is handling things just like this.

That should work just fine. You'll need to ask the benefits person/dept at your new employer to find out how the rollover check should be made payable (due to certain rules, some places are very picky about the wording, you can make it go smoother by getting the wording they want used). You'll then ask for a "direct rollover" from your prior employer. In a direct rollover, the check is paid to the new plan and not to you. This avoids w/holding. By doing the rollover, you'll avoid any tax or penalty. Oh, and doublecheck w/ your new employer (if you haven't already) that they'll let you get a loan that quickly against your rollover monies. It usually isn't a problem but better safe than sorry.

You're not finding anything because it's a trick question... the 402(g) limit and the Roth IRA limit are unrelated. Now, if the Roth is inside the 401(k) (ie, a Roth account) and not an entirely separate IRA account, then it's a different answer. But for a separate Roth IRA, the limit is simply the current annual limit of $5,000. IRS Publication 590 is helpful: http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/p590.pdf Here's where Kiplinger's once answered your basic question: http://www.kiplinger.com/columns/ask/archive/2006/q0814.htm

Administering hardships can sometimes be a fine line between too little and too much information. I've had people say too much and talk themselves out of withdrawals. The problem here is the words in the reg: "unless the employer has actual knowledge to the contrary". To emphasize on a few points from Amy's comments above.... 1) it has to be a "commercial source"; this excludes payments plans offered by the hospital/provider as they're not a 3rd party to the transaction; it also excludes loans from family members. 2) it has to be at "reasonable commercial terms". 3) it can't be counterproductive. Do you have "actual knowledge" that what the participant did fully meets the criteria? Keep in mind that the regs don't require them to be "unpaid" medical expenses... simply medical expenses. You're generally not trying to verify anything about payments which might be reflected on a statement except to determine if it was from an insurance company. In fact it's customary that payment be rendered at time of service, so some prior payments are expected to be seen.

To be honest I hadn't really made that nuiance until QDROphile had made a similar statement some months ago and caused me to become curious about it. Just thinking aloud, going back to the original post, a review of the 401(k) plan text would be very important to determine what it says about the suspension and it's application to other plans of the company. For instance, if the 401(k) doc didn't say "all other plans", then it technically would not apply to the ESPP. (This would be a case where the plan could be slightly less than full safe harbor.)

QDRO's point is that Reg Sec 1.401(k)-1(d)(3)(iv)(E) is entitled: "Distribution deemed necessary to satisfy immediate and heavy financial need". That word "deemed" makes it technically a safe harbor provision. And indeed, part (a) of Sec 636 of EGTRRA which changed the suspension to 6 months is entitled "Safe Harbor Relief", confirming that it's viewed as a safe harbor provision and not a mandatory one. Of course going outside of safe harbor is done at one's own discretion (hopefully w/ advice from ERISA counsel).

Treasury specifically listed stock purchase plans in Reg Sec 1.401(k)-1(d)(3)(iv)(F): "the phrase plans maintained by the employer also includes a stock option, stock purchase, or similar plan maintained by the employer". And this sample Georgia Pacific ESPP document specifically addresses that hardship w/drwls from the 401(k) plan result in suspension. Same w/ this one from ServiceMaster.

I've been reading up on the mess in the auction rate bond market. I'm now guessing that the bond can't be sold because that market has become illiquid, not because of other restrictions on the bond itself. My opinion is the holder has roughly six months remaining this year to find someone who will buy part or all of the bond. This may mean giving a discount on the bond. Have to weigh the loss from selling the bond at a discount against the excise tax on the incomplete MRD. The problem is that annual MRDs will begin to snowball as the bond's interest income becomes less and less able to service the growing accumulated MRDs. It's going to take a lot of phone calls to a lot of brokers and possibly a lot of online investigation to find a broker/dealer who might happen to know an investor who'd be willing to buy the bond. I'd ask around for people who specialize in placing illiquid assets. Might go on the more popular forums like Motley Fool and try to get leads from there as well. Hmm, and the biggest brokerage firms are the most likely to have clients in other cities that might be willing to buy, so starting w/ the big houses might get you the fastest result. Oh, and if the bond can be sold in partial units, you only have to offer the biggest discount on the piece you need to cover this year's MRD. You can then shop the rest of the units around for a better deal (at least until you need to cover next year's MRD).

When does the account holder turn 70 1/2? Is the account holder eligible to convert to a Roth IRA?

The 5500EZ instructions agree w/ that statement.

If you mean a CODA/401(k) that's w/in a 125 plan, yes. Other features in a 125 plan would be unaffected.

It's in reg sec 1.401(k)-1 The exact number escapes me because they moved it around awhile back so the numbering in my older CCH Pension Guide is off. From the reg (emphasis added): (2) The employee is prohibited, under the terms of the plan or an otherwise legally enforceable agreement, from making elective contributions and employee contributions to the plan and all other plans maintained by the employer for at least 6 months after receipt of the hardship distribution.

A vast majority of financial aid begins by completing the Department of Education's form FAFSA... If she immediately spends the money on a car or household furnishings or her half of the credit card debt, then it's not an asset for line Q43. Otherwise, she reports it. She can spend down her cash immediately before completing the form, yes it's w/in the rules. Form FAFSA line Q43 says (emphasis added): As of today, what is your (and your spouse’s) total current balance of cash, savings and checking accounts? (Q43)