david rigby

You may also want to get your fee paid, first.

Might this really be a granddaughter? (Grand)Daughter is in witness protection program? Another possibility? after diligent search, the PA is unable to locate (or even identify) any such person as the "alleged" beneficiary, so the benefit is forfeited until such time as the person appears?

Don't forget that most plans say a participant who is rehired before the actual distribution no longer has a distributable event, or something like that.

Well, not anything you want. You probably can't name it the IBM Pension Plan. Just don't pick something that could be confusing.

In addition to Andy's advice, the answer to your title question is (probably) YES.

Derrin Watson's Q&A column: http://benefitslink.com/modperl/qa.cgi?db=qa_who_is_employer The questions are in chronological order, most recent first. Start with No. 315.

No criticism of Peter, but just an opinion: Any process/system should consider the unmarried participant who later gets married. In many cases, the use of a computer-based system may encourage some particiapnts to assume "updates will be automatic", so that participant will not provide any notification to anyone when the marital status changes.

I'll assume you refer to the FAS87/106/158 discount rate. (OK, it's now ASC 715.) A few thoughts, that you can use or ignore: 1. Note that the actuary uses the discount rate, but does not choose it. The party responsible for the discount rate is the plan sponsor who must put FAS87/106/158 disclosure items in its financial statement. For this reason, many sponsors have their auditor review (but not choose) the discount rate. Most of the auditors I deal with prefer to review the process of choosing a rate, rather than the rate itself. 2. I recommend a particular process to my clients, some of whom use it. 3. Some people think that "reasonableness" is measured by "what is everyone else doing". I'm strongly opposed to that as a definition.

Effen is correct. (In case you did not know, he is quoting from IRS regulation 1.416-1.) To expand a bit on his comment, most tests will include some generic preliminary statements about what you (the test-taker) should assume. Very common is a statement that you should assume/apply the regulations and/or statute in effect at X date. Note that since regs and/or statutes generally define minimums or maximums, the statement means you should not infer anything beyond the min or max contained in the applicable reg or statute.

Does the plan answer your question? BTW, the regulatory rule for "can't distribute if ever over $5K" no longer applies, unless your plan still uses it.

Mike's caution is worthwhile. The "usual" method is .02 x 25 x $3K = $1500, then multiply that result by a fraction of PS(past service) / TS(total projected service at NRD). However, some plans use minor variations, for example a maximum on TS in the above fraction. Read plan definitions carefully.

Who is "we"?

Was any portion contributed after the end of the plan year? If so, amend the tax return to have that portion deducted in the subsequent tax year.

Data as of 30-NOV-12 (Friday) Moody's Daily Long-term Corporate Bond Yield Averages Utilities Industrial Corporate Aaa NA 3.58 3.58 Aa 3.66 3.58 3.62 A 3.89 3.95 3.92 Baa 4.48 4.65 4.57 Avg 4.01 3.94 3.98 Moody's Daily Treasury Yield Averages Short-Term (3-5 yrs) 0.43 Medium-Term (5-10 yrs) 1.05 Long-Term (10+ yrs) 2.28

If the plan provision(s) define the default beneficiary as "estate", the plan cannot pay to someone else. "Thou shalt follow the terms of thy plan." (That's why the plan is in writing.) First, the cost of creating/re-opening the estate is not the concern of the plan and/or plan sponsor. Get the proper documentation, because that's what the plan requires. Second, re-read the plan to confirm thay you have the correct interpretation of "beneficiary". Third, if desired, the plan, including the definition of beneficiary, can be amended (assuming it's done on a non-discriminatory basis.)

There might be some kumquats in there also.

No. You cannot roll over anything unless you get a distribution. In general, no one gets a distribution until some type of severance of employment. Very likely, your plan also states that no distribution is permitted after severance IF the participant (you) has been rehired before the actual distribution is made.

416?

Original post is not clear. - Did you get a distribution? If so, has it already been rolled over? anywhere? - Alternatively, are you saying that your May 2011 termination of employment will trigger a distribution (not yet made)? If so, the comment from QDROphile is correct: most plans will not permit you to recieve such a distribution due to rehire. (Admittedly, some employers fail to understand this provision.)

Well... that might also leave out any child born or adopted after the designation.

Relationship of the questioner to the plan is important. No plan sponsor and/or trustee should take advice about a PT from anyone other than his/her legal counsel.

The UP84 table is unisex. The base table is defined as "appropriate" for a population of 10% - 30% female. Use the midpoint of 20%. Then, the table was defined so that each one-year setback(setforward) is equivalent to a 20% increase(decrease) in the female portion of the population. Conclusion: a one-year setforward is 100% male, and a four-year setback is 100% female. Note that this table is significantly out-of-date. Be sure it is appropriate for your use.

Instructions for W-4P: http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/fw4p.pdf

Recent disscussion: http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=52397

Announcement 2012-44 http://benefitslink.com/src/irs/a-12-44.pdf