david rigby

02/08/07 Federal Register http://a257.g.akamaitech.net/7/257/2422/01...pdf/E7-2087.pdf

Yep. I found the cite: ERISA sec. 4006(a)(3)(E)(iii). For CL, don't forget the 10-yr amortization in IRC 412(l)(10).

Perhaps I've got the sequence wrong, but I thought the issuance of a new mortality table for Current Liability purposes will automatically trigger changes in how we calculate the variable premium liability, and this change should be effective immediately. But I've seen nothing from the PBGC. Anyone?

Just what is this APR being used for? Is this an ERISA plan?

"Prudent man" rule?

Isn't the 402(g) limit an individual one? What does the plan say?

http://benefitslink.com/taxregs/td9310.pdf

January 31, 2007 MOODY'S DAILY LONG-TERM CORPORATE BOND YIELD AVERAGES Utilities Industrial Corporate Aaa NA* 5.48 5.48 Aa 5.83 5.81 5.82 A 6.01 5.97 5.99 Baa 6.22 6.57 6.40 Avg 6.02 5.96 5.99 MOODY'S DAILY TREASURY YIELD AVERAGES Short-Term (3-5 yrs): 4.80 Medium-Term (5-10 yrs): 4.81 Long-Term (10+ yrs): 4.98 MOODY'S DAILY PUBLIC UTILITY COMMON STOCK YIELD AVERAGES Price: 308.0 Yield: 3.52 New Dividend: 10.85

I never heard of that. It was not in the list of tables we studied 25+ years ago for (very old) Part 5 of the SOA exams. I'm suspicious about the year; very unlikely that a table was issued that year, but it could be referring to a later table based on someone born in 1900. Try: http://library.soa.org:8080/xtbml/jsp/index.jsp Also try a google search.

Thou shalt not violate Section 415. And 401(a)(4), although appears to be a no-brainer from your original data.

I try not to disagree with Mike. BTW, if this "non-profit" has enough cash to make a PS contribution of 46% of total payroll, could someone (IRS perhaps) question its non-profit status? I'm just curious.

If you found some links, I (and many other readers) would appreciate seeing them in a post.

I agree with SoCal. I would also review all assumptions.

.... subject to the terms of the plan itself.

Some historical rates from Moody's: http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?s...st&p=141944 I've seen a range of rates, from 5.5% to 6.25%. Both ends of that range are unusual, with 5.75-6.0% more common. However, any prevailing external rate is only a proxy. A more precise method is to measure each plan's liability duration and compare to an external table, such as the one published by Citicorp. Still more precise is to perform cashflow matching of the plan's expected payments, and determine the discount rate by matching high quality bonds to the payment stream(s).

... providing the plan administrator does so on a non-discriminatory basis.

Would the marriage to #3 automatically invalidate the beneficiary designation of #2? Might be a question for the plan administrator. The most important advice here is "The plan fiduciary then needs to hire competent counsel."

I agree with Effen. I assumed the orginal post meant the existence of a FFC. Flosfur: is there a full funding credit?

Yes. Be sure you apply the "wipe-out" to this year's bases. You still may have a new base next year. And, don't forget to wipe out any Reconciliation Account.

If you are referring to an actuarial increase triggered by Internal Revenue Code section 411, note section 411(e), which exempts governmental plans from all of 411. However, there may be plan provisions, or state/local statute, that require such treatment.

Thanks. Although verification is still needed, I believe the plan covers only the subsidiary (possibly the parent has no employees). If that is the case, I think 10.05 does not apply since the plan is not currently maintained by multiple members of the controlled group. However, a simple amendment could probaby cover the parent, so that 10.05 does apply. Agree?

IRS Rev. Proc 2005-66, http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-irbs/irb05-37.pdf (dealing with the new staggered remedical amendment cycle), includes subsection 10.07, permitting the use of the parent corporation's EIN/cycle when there is more than one plan in the controlled group. Can one determine, if there is only one 401(a) plan, that use of the parent's EIN/cycle is not permitted? Have I overlooked something?

There is a proposed change, to be effective in 2007. However, as far as I know, it is still proposed as of today. http://www.irs.gov/irb/2005-51_IRB/ar15.html

It used to be more common that the match was based on company earnings, but less common now.

Is it possible that the prior TPA resigned because this client is a black hole?