Guest moorhan Posted August 20, 2001 Posted August 20, 2001 Assume client owns 100% of company A and 50% of company B. Must these clients be combined for tax qualification (i.e. non-discrimination,etc.) testing purposes by the contract administrator?
John A Posted August 21, 2001 Posted August 21, 2001 The following link may be helpful: http://www.benefitslink.com/cgi-bin/qa.cgi...d=118&mode=read
Richard Anderson Posted August 21, 2001 Posted August 21, 2001 Who owns the other 50% of B, and are A & B an Affiliated Service Group?
Guest moorhan Posted August 23, 2001 Posted August 23, 2001 Another individual owns the other 50% of company B, and they do not appear to be "affiliated" even though they are in the same line of business.
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