BG5150 Posted December 12, 2008 Posted December 12, 2008 A person's 2007 RMS is based on her 12/31/2006 account balance. For argument's sake, let's say the RMD is $1,000. She never takes it. When I calculate the 2008 RMD using the 12/31/2007 balance, I don't reduce the balance by$1,000 because of the previous year's RMD do I? (Did it used to be done like that?) QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Guest Sieve Posted December 12, 2008 Posted December 12, 2008 Yes, you do determine the following year's MRD by reducing the appropriate balance by the amount of the MRD not taken. Look at Appendix A, .06, of the new EPCRS - Rev. Proc. 2008-50. (Of course, you could do it the way you suggest--it would require a larger MRD in the following years, and therefore would be more costly to correct, but I don't suspect that the IRS would have any trouble with that approach.) By the way -- I hope you plan to correct the missed MRD under EPCRS.
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