Blackbirch Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 Sounds simple, I know. Assume the following: DC plan with 5-year graded vesting. Vesting service is defined as calendar year with 1,000 hours. Following 2009 plan year, participant is 60% vesting. Participant completes 1,000th hour in April, 2010. Under this scenario, the participant will certainly get his additional 20% vesting for 2010 and will be 80% vested following the 2010 year. Nothing (not death, termination of employment, or burning the office down) will change that. Having completed a year of service for 2010, the participant will receive vesting credit for the year. But WHEN? Specifically, if the participant wishes to take an in-service distribution in May, 2010, he obviously cannot take a distribution of the unvested portion. But how vested is he at that moment in May? Is he 80% vested because he's already completed 2010's 1,000 hours? Is he 60% because 2010's not over yet? Sal's got an example on page 4.73 that's implying that either approach is permissible (although recommending crediting of the additional 20% immediately upon completion of the 1,000 for the sake of administrative hassle), but I was hoping for something more authoritative. Surely this is an issue that somebody's had to deal with on a practical level, before! Any thoughts?
BG5150 Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 We always give it to them when they get the 1000 hrs. QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Bird Posted January 26, 2010 Posted January 26, 2010 If I knew for sure they had 1000 hours I would give them the year of service. Ed Snyder
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