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Posted

An attorney has a sole-proprietorship for a portion of 2010. He establishes a SEP for his sole-proprietorship and contributes $49,000 to the SEP in 2010.

He also becomes an equity partner (self-employed individual) in a 50 partner law firm partnership. The law firm sponsors a top-heavy 401(k) profit sharing plan that he is eligible for in 2010, but makes no 401(k) contributions and receives no employer contributions in 2010. As a non-key employee with respect to the law firm qualified plan, he is entitled to a 3% top-heavy minimum contribution.

Do the contributions to the SEP and qualified plan need to be coordinated?

Posted
An attorney has a sole-proprietorship for a portion of 2010. He establishes a SEP for his sole-proprietorship and contributes $49,000 to the SEP in 2010.

He also becomes an equity partner (self-employed individual) in a 50 partner law firm partnership. The law firm sponsors a top-heavy 401(k) profit sharing plan that he is eligible for in 2010, but makes no 401(k) contributions and receives no employer contributions in 2010. As a non-key employee with respect to the law firm qualified plan, he is entitled to a 3% top-heavy minimum contribution.

Do the contributions to the SEP and qualified plan need to be coordinated?

No, as long as it is not a controlled group. It's comparable to working for Ford and GM and getting contributions in both plans.

Just make sure his sole-prop compensation supports the deduction.

William C. Presson, ERPA, QPA, QKA
bill.presson@gmail.com
C 205.994.4070

 

Guest Sieve
Posted

As long as it also is not an affiliated service group.

Posted

AND (and just in case). as long as owner's ownership in the partnership is 50% or less, Code Section 415(h) requiring aggregation for section 415 limitation purposes only, would not apply.

For example, and community property aside, if wife was majority owner (say 51%) of law firm then aggregation under Code Section 415 (only) would apply.

Hope this thread has helped.

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