BG5150 Posted September 25, 2014 Posted September 25, 2014 I have a plan that had deferrals taken from an ineligible compensation (overtime). One correction under consideration is refunding the overages (plus investment experience). This would be considered an excess deferral. This happened in 2013. Because we are past April 15, how is the distribution taxed? Is it earnings in 2014 and excess in 2013 AND 2014? Or did things change and everything is taxable in 2014? QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Lou S. Posted September 25, 2014 Posted September 25, 2014 Do I understand he did not exceed the 402(g) limit, just had deferrals on ineligible pay? I don't think this is technically an excess deferral that needs to be refunded by 4/15 but rather a different form of correction. Is this an EPCRS correction of some sort?
BG5150 Posted September 26, 2014 Author Posted September 26, 2014 Lou, What correction is it then? It's either an excess deferral (as defined by the code or a plan limit) or what? We were thinking of being aggressive going down the "ineligible participant" route, in that deferrals were taken from an ineligible source of income. Some people in my office just think we should correct moving forward, let the participants know what happened and move on. (I'm going to copy this into the Plan Corrections Forum to properly place it.) QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Tom Poje Posted September 26, 2014 Posted September 26, 2014 I agree with Lou, I don't see it as an excess deferral, you haven't exceed a limit. you have a failure to follow the terms of the document, so fix it so the plan is back in a position it should have been if the error had not occurred.
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