MarZDoates Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Participant has terminated employment and has incurred five one year breaks in service, but has not taken a distribution. Not fully vested. Document says forfeiture occurs: the earlier of a forfeiture break (the last day of the vesting computaton period in which the participant first incurs a forfeiture break in service) or cash out. If the forfeiture break occurs on 12/31/14, do we forfeit an amount based on the value on that date? Or would it be based on the current value? Example: Value on 12/31/14 is $100,000. Forfeiture is 80% or $80,000. Value as of today $105,000 times 80% is $84,000. If the actual forfeiture transaction occurs today, do we forfeit $80,000 or $84,000? Thank you. QPA, QKA
BG5150 Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 Current value. Is this a DB plan? How can someone amass $100,000 and be only 20% vested? QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
MarZDoates Posted January 16, 2015 Author Posted January 16, 2015 No. I just made up numbers as an example. QPA, QKA
ETA Consulting LLC Posted January 16, 2015 Posted January 16, 2015 As of today, he's only 20% vested in whatever the balance is. So, you'd forfeit 80% today; leaving him 100% vested in the remaining balance. Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA
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