jkharvey Posted February 13, 2015 Posted February 13, 2015 For plan purposes when does an owner (stockholder) actually "terminate"? The owner in question has not disposed of his shares, so still owns more than 5% of the company. He has, however, stopped taking salary and is not sharing in corporate gain/loss. I still need to confirm if he is actually performing any services, but for this scenario, let's say he is not. At what point is he "terminated"? Thanks
My 2 cents Posted February 13, 2015 Posted February 13, 2015 Not a lawyer but it seems to me that stock ownership is not relevant when assessing whether someone is to be treated as active for plan purposes. Always check with your actuary first!
chc93 Posted February 13, 2015 Posted February 13, 2015 Not a lawyer but it seems to me that stock ownership is not relevant when assessing whether someone is to be treated as active for plan purposes. Yes... and from numerous ASPPA conferences (of course, verbal), no compensation means not in any coverage or discrimination tests... so it's as if the participant is "terminated", or at least "not employed".
Bill Presson Posted February 13, 2015 Posted February 13, 2015 I would think for a C or S corp that not getting a paycheck would at least be a good indication although we all know of owners that work with out taking paychecks from time to time. For a sole proprieto/LLC, etc, I would think it would be a bit more difficult because of the earned income. This would definitely be a facts and circumstances situation that would need to be documented. William C. Presson, ERPA, QPA, QKA bill.presson@gmail.com C 205.994.4070
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now