bitsyhaze Posted February 16, 2015 Posted February 16, 2015 Is a 401(k) plan permitted to only true-up employer matching contributions for plan participants who have hit the 402(g) limit for contributions ? Is there any statutory cite to support that this is possible?
Bill Presson Posted February 16, 2015 Posted February 16, 2015 I've never seen this done, but I can't imagine where you could get a cite to support it. William C. Presson, ERPA, QPA, QKA bill.presson@gmail.com C 205.994.4070
Tom Poje Posted February 16, 2015 Posted February 16, 2015 let's see, chances are the only ones who hit the limit are HCEs, so in a given year the only people who get advantage are HCEs, which at the minimum probably fails BRF (if such a method were written into a document, which I find hard to believe) Bill Presson 1
Bird Posted February 17, 2015 Posted February 17, 2015 It's probably one of those things where you have to ask what is trying to be accomplished. I would guess that there is a misunderstanding about something or other. Ed Snyder
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