austin3515 Posted November 29, 2016 Posted November 29, 2016 Company A buys 100% of the ASSETS of Company B on 10/1/2016. Owner of Company A is the sole employee of Company A and has 10 years of service. Company A assumed sponsorship of Company B's 401k Plan. But now the Owner of Company A wants to maximize his contributions for 2016 and 2017 without giving a contribution to the acquired employees. Can he establish a new Money Purchase Plan with a year of service so he is the only eligible employee for 2016 and 2017, and then freeze the Plan 1/1/18 when the other employees would be eligible. Perhaps terminate "a few years" after that to satisfy permanency. Look forward to hearing thoughts. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Belgarath Posted November 30, 2016 Posted November 30, 2016 Hmmm...interesting question. Without doing any additional research, I'm inclined to think that 414(a) would require crediting service with the prior employer. As an aside, IF the technique is valid, could you use two year eligibility rather than one year, and get one more year before freezing?
austin3515 Posted November 30, 2016 Author Posted November 30, 2016 (a) Service for predecessor employer For purposes of this part—(1) in any case in which the employer maintains a plan of a predecessor employer, service for such predecessor shall be treated as service for the employer, and So they figured out my scheming mind and wanted to make sure that just setting up a new plan would not allow you to circumvent the rules. I thought perhaps the rule to recognize the service was limited to just the plan in question. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now