shERPA Posted November 1, 2018 Posted November 1, 2018 BITD I remember attending a conference session where the presenter stated that an owner-only plan with no non-key employees did not need to include 416 provisions. The reason would be to set up a plan with a 5 year cliff vesting schedule to delay RMDs as long as possible. But I can't find any authority for this. 410(a)(10) and the 416 regs flatly state that all plans except those mentioned in Q&A T-38 must have such provisions. And the vesting language applies to all employer-derived benefits, not just those of non-keys. We just took over an owner only DB and the prior firm had used a 5 year cliff vesting and in the TH section it states that the TH schedule is the plan schedule. As luck would have it, a 3 year cliff would have required 2016 and 2017 RMDs. Anyone know of any authority for using a non-top heavy vesting schedule in an plan with just a single key ee/owner participant? I carry stuff uphill for others who get all the glory.
Larry Starr Posted November 1, 2018 Posted November 1, 2018 IRC 401(a)(7) is a qualification requirement. It says a plan must meet IRC 411 to be a qualified plan. IRC 411(a)(2)(A)(ii) provides that a 5 year cliff vesting is one of the acceptable rules. The reference above to 410(a)(10) should be 401(a)(10). The vesting requirement for a TH plan is under 416(b)(1). IF the plan is TH, the vesting schedule has to be one of the TH schedules (2/20 or 3 years 100%), and the 5 year cliff option is not allowed. If we have a one man plan (who is also a key), it is impossible for the key employee share to be less than 100% (assuming no prior employee participants). Therefore, the plan is Top Heavy, and the TH vesting has to apply. I don't know how they justified not applying TH vesting; can you ask them for a citation? Don't believe they can provide one. Lawrence C. Starr, FLMI, CLU, CEBS, CPC, ChFC, EA, ATA, QPFC President Qualified Plan Consultants, Inc. 46 Daggett Drive West Springfield, MA 01089 413-736-2066 larrystarr@qpc-inc.com
shERPA Posted November 2, 2018 Author Posted November 2, 2018 Thanks Larry, yes 401(a)(10). I don't know who the prior firm is but will see if we can put the question to them. But I agree, I don't think they can, I certainly don't see the authority for it. I do this a lot with 3 year cliff, but never 5. I do clearly remember hearing this once at a conference session, but it was probably 15 years ago, I don't remember the speaker and certainly don't have the outline. It's never come up in my world until now. Absent a relevant cite, looks like we'll need to recommend VCP for both the document failure (not providing for a 416 compliant vesting schedule) and 2 missed RMDs. I carry stuff uphill for others who get all the glory.
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