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Posted
20 minutes ago, JackS said:

No.  If Daughter owned shares directly those would be attributed to her spouse but shares she is attributed from her father do not get attributed to her husband.

The easy way to remember this is that there is no DOUBLE ATTRIBUTION.

Lawrence C. Starr, FLMI, CLU, CEBS, CPC, ChFC, EA, ATA, QPFC
President
Qualified Plan Consultants, Inc.
46 Daggett Drive
West Springfield, MA 01089
413-736-2066
larrystarr@qpc-inc.com

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