metsfan026 Posted March 31, 2022 Posted March 31, 2022 I have a quick question and just want to make sure I'm not overlooking anything: Company 1 Person 1 - 100% ownership Person 2 - 0% ownership (though they work for the company) Company 2 Person 1 - 75% ownership Person 2 - 25% ownership The two people are not related. Since Person 1 owns less than 80% of company 2, there isn't a Controlled Group issue (even though Person 2 works for both, they only have ownership in one). Thanks in advance!
Lou S. Posted March 31, 2022 Posted March 31, 2022 Correct; no GC based on those facts. Luke Bailey 1
EBECatty Posted March 31, 2022 Posted March 31, 2022 Don't forget to check the excluded stock rules, especially if person 2 is an employee of company 2 and person 1 has a non-reciprocal right such as a right of first refusal on person 2's stock. Luke Bailey 1
C. B. Zeller Posted March 31, 2022 Posted March 31, 2022 There is a 415(h) controlled group. EDIT: see below Free advice is worth what you paid for it. Do not rely on the information provided in this post for any purpose, including (but not limited to): tax planning, compliance with ERISA or the IRC, investing or other forms of fortune-telling, bird identification, relationship advice, or spiritual guidance. Corey B. Zeller, MSEA, CPC, QPA, QKA Preferred Pension Planning Corp.corey@pppc.co
EBECatty Posted March 31, 2022 Posted March 31, 2022 8 minutes ago, C. B. Zeller said: There is a 415(h) controlled group. My understanding is that 415(h) applies only to parent-sub groups by reference to 1563(a)(1) (leaving out (a)(2), which covers brother-sister groups). Under 1563, I also don't think person 1's 75% ownership interest of company 2 will be attributed to company 1, so I don't think you have a 415(h) parent-sub group either. Luke Bailey 1
C. B. Zeller Posted March 31, 2022 Posted March 31, 2022 2 hours ago, EBECatty said: My understanding is that 415(h) applies only to parent-sub groups by reference to 1563(a)(1) (leaving out (a)(2), which covers brother-sister groups). Under 1563, I also don't think person 1's 75% ownership interest of company 2 will be attributed to company 1, so I don't think you have a 415(h) parent-sub group either. Upon second thought, I agree. In which case, I revise my prior comment to say that there may be a 415(h) controlled group. metsfan026 didn't specify what type of entities the companies are. If both companies are corporations then there is not a 415(h) controlled group. If Company 1 is a sole proprietorship, then the question becomes a little murkier as the sole proprietorship is equivalent to the individual for most purposes; is there any difference in saying that the individual owns 75% of company 2 vs the sole proprietorship owns 75% of company 2? Free advice is worth what you paid for it. Do not rely on the information provided in this post for any purpose, including (but not limited to): tax planning, compliance with ERISA or the IRC, investing or other forms of fortune-telling, bird identification, relationship advice, or spiritual guidance. Corey B. Zeller, MSEA, CPC, QPA, QKA Preferred Pension Planning Corp.corey@pppc.co
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