Guest Tara Curran Posted September 14, 2000 Posted September 14, 2000 How do you calculate the 20% top-paid group of employees? Is it as follows: (1) First list all officers and owners and then all employees in order by compensation. (2) Calculate 20% of total employer compensation. (3) All officers and 5% owners are automatically included in the top-paid group. (4) If officers and 5% owners do not make up 20% of total employer compensation, then you include the highest paid employees until you reach 20% of total employer compensation.
Guest Posted September 14, 2000 Posted September 14, 2000 top paid group deals with HCE determination. since 1997 officers only apply to determination if an ee is 'key' if an ee is a 5% owner (more than) at any time in the current year or prior year, that person is an HCE. this does not effect the count for the # of hces at all. to determine the top paid group, count all bodies in the current year. take 20% of that number. you are allowed to round up or round down. you are allowed to exclude from your body count ees who have not reached age 21, worked less than 6 months, normally work less than 17 1/2 a week. list all ees in order of comp (including owners) and anyone making more than 80,000 and in the top 20% will be an HCE the following year. you are allowed to break ties anyway you desire.
Guest Tara Curran Posted September 14, 2000 Posted September 14, 2000 If an employee has more compensation than an owner/officer, then the employee may be a member of the top-paid group and the owner/officer may not be part of the top-paid group? Example: A company has 5 employees all with compensation over $80,000. The owner earns $190,000 of compensation, his son earns $85,000 and one of the other employees earns $300,000. Is the employee earning $300,000 the only one included in the top-paid group?
Richard Anderson Posted September 14, 2000 Posted September 14, 2000 You used the term "owner/officer". Officer information is not relevant for HCE determination. If the company has only five employees, then only the highest paid employee will be in the top paid group. (5 x 20% = 1). Although the owner and son are not in the top paid group; they are HCEs because of more than 5% ownership. But, I don't think that you will want to use the top paid group election if all employees made over $80,000 in the prior year. If all employees are HCEs, then the non-discrimination rules are deemed to be passed. In fact there is no prohibition against discriminating against HCEs.
EGB Posted September 14, 2000 Posted September 14, 2000 Why is the son an HCE? The facts did not say he was an owner and there should not be any attribution between the father and the son.
Guest Mr. X Posted September 14, 2000 Posted September 14, 2000 Beth, I am afraid you are incorrect. I would recommend reading IRC Section 318.
EGB Posted September 14, 2000 Posted September 14, 2000 I see. I was thinking of family aggregation being repealed in the context aggregating the compensation of family members(ie, the elimination of former 414(q)(6)), but I now see that family aggregation applies in the context of determining who constitutes a 5% owner, which in turn determines HCEs. Thanks.
david rigby Posted September 15, 2000 Posted September 15, 2000 Perhaps better terminolgy would be to state that *family aggregation* was repealed, but this has no effect on *family attribution.* I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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