notapensiongeek Posted Tuesday at 06:09 PM Posted Tuesday at 06:09 PM Company A and Company B each sponsor their own 401(k) plan. Both entities are owned 50/50 by Tommy and Cooper. Both plans have the same plan year (fiscal year-end), testing method (current year), and neither is a safe harbor plan. No employer contributions are made to either plan for the year in question. Plan A: Participants: Tommy and Cooper only (the only employees/participants) Plan B: Tommy and Cooper are employees of Company B (and eligible participants in Plan B) but do not make elective deferrals. There are 16 HCEs total (including Tommy and Cooper) There are 79 NHCEs eligible to participate (2 are otherwise excludable, 77 are not) How are these plans required to be tested for 410(b) coverage and ADP testing? Specifically: Are the two plans required to be aggregated for testing purposes due to common ownership/controlled group rules, or may they be tested separately? If aggregation is required, how does that affect coverage and ADP results in this fact pattern? If separate testing is permitted, under what circumstances would that apply? Are there any other issues or traps in this structure that we should be aware of? Thanks in advance for any insight.
Bri Posted Tuesday at 06:52 PM Posted Tuesday at 06:52 PM Well, even if you wanted to test them separately, Plan A has a 0% NHCE ratio (you do have to measure the entire controlled group's population) so you're going to have to aggregate them, first and foremost. CuseFan, Artie M, John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA and 1 other 4
CuseFan Posted 22 hours ago Posted 22 hours ago Yes, must aggregate for A to pass coverage which means you must also aggregate to test nondiscrimination. Artie M and David D 2 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
BG5150 Posted 19 hours ago Posted 19 hours ago FWIW: I agree. QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
notapensiongeek Posted 17 hours ago Author Posted 17 hours ago Thank you all for your input. So this is not a permissive aggregation situation; aggregation is required. Is that correct? Bill Presson 1
BG5150 Posted 2 hours ago Posted 2 hours ago Yes. Because the first plan does not pass coverage on its own. QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
rocknrolls2 Posted 1 hour ago Posted 1 hour ago Prior to the acquisition of the sponsor of Plan B, I question how (unless the owners were the only employees), Plan A was able to pass coverage. In this context, the best solution going forward would be to urge the client to merge the plans.
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