Santo Gold Posted 22 hours ago Posted 22 hours ago This is straightforward but my conclusion does not seem to make logical sense: Husband and wife each own 50% of Company A Husband and wife each own 22.50% of Company B. Other non-related businesses/individuals own the other 55%. Under attribution rules, each spouse owns 45.00% of Company B. That makes identical ownership between them 90% of Company B. Since their common ownership of Company A is 100%, then there is a CG between A and B. Does that sound correct? They really only own 45% of Company B and it would not seem to be logical that that there would be a CG with them really only owing 45% of Company B Any comments are appreciated.
Bri Posted 22 hours ago Posted 22 hours ago Yeah, it's not 45 MORE percent that they own from each other....
Santo Gold Posted 22 hours ago Author Posted 22 hours ago Quote Thank you Bri. Could you explain further as I am not sure if you are agreeing that for identical ownership combined they are 90% or 45%?
justanotheradmin Posted 22 hours ago Posted 22 hours ago Conceptually, think of the H/W as one person. Don't treat them as two separate individuals. New Combined Person owns 100% of Company A, and New Combined Person also owns 45% of Company B. Identical ownership is only 45% John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA and Bill Presson 2 I'm a stranger on the internet. Nothing I write is tax or legal advice. I'd like a witty saying here, but I don't have any. When in doubt, what does the plan document say?
Bri Posted 19 hours ago Posted 19 hours ago The identical ownership is 45, and the 45% they are deemed to co-own is identical, the same 45% of the company.
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