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Posted

This is straightforward but my conclusion does not seem to make logical sense:

Husband and wife each own 50% of Company A

Husband and wife each own 22.50% of Company B.  Other non-related businesses/individuals own the other 55%.

Under attribution rules, each spouse owns 45.00% of Company B.  That makes identical ownership between them 90% of Company B.  Since their common ownership of Company A is 100%, then there is a CG between A and B.

Does that sound correct?  They really only own 45% of Company B and it would not seem to be logical that that there would be a CG with them really only owing 45% of Company B

Any comments are appreciated.

 

Posted
Quote

 

Thank you Bri.  Could you explain further as I am not sure if you are agreeing that for identical ownership combined they are 90% or 45%?

 

Posted

Conceptually, think of the H/W as one person. Don't treat them as two separate individuals. 

New Combined Person owns 100% of Company A, and New Combined Person also owns 45% of Company B. 
Identical ownership is only 45%

I'm a stranger on the internet. Nothing I write is tax or legal advice. 

I'd like a witty saying here, but I don't have any. When in doubt, what does the plan document say?

Posted

The identical ownership is 45, and the 45% they are deemed to co-own is identical, the same 45% of the company.

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