TPApril Posted May 25, 2022 Posted May 25, 2022 Haven't seen this before. Fidelity bond coverage is lower than 10% needed, set at $20,000, but according to the agent, has a built in 'inflation guard' up to $500,000. Assuming that is fine, what would we report on the 5500? In this case $500,000 is greater than plan assets even.
Lou S. Posted May 25, 2022 Posted May 25, 2022 I thought they were quite common in the small plan market. I'd report 10% of the assets as the bond amount as I'm fairly certain that most of those increase bond protections are capped at the lessor of 10% of assets or $500,000 if you read the fine print. Luke Bailey 1
Bri Posted May 25, 2022 Posted May 25, 2022 Typically the inflation guard rider requires the bond to cover 10% at the time it's purchased, and only then would the increase be in play if needed. (Still waiting for my first claim on their bond.) I used to do 10% of the BOY asset value on the 5500, but I forget the specifics as to why it wouldn't have been the EOY value. Luke Bailey 1
BG5150 Posted May 25, 2022 Posted May 25, 2022 In my experience they say the plan is covered for $X but the coverage will increase to the amount required by ERISA (which is 10% of BOY assets). That's why I generally put 10% of opening assets for the bond. Nate S, Bill Presson and Luke Bailey 3 QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Bill Presson Posted May 25, 2022 Posted May 25, 2022 We see this very consistently now. Luke Bailey 1 William C. Presson, ERPA, QPA, QKA bill.presson@gmail.com C 205.994.4070
Peter Gulia Posted May 25, 2022 Posted May 25, 2022 For the micro market (in the 1990s), I saw fidelity-bond insurance contracts that stated the coverage limit not by an amount but by a formula. For example: The Coverage Limit is the lesser of $500,000 or 10 percent of the funds the Insured handled, but no less than $1,000. Is it still done that way? Luke Bailey 1 Peter Gulia PC Fiduciary Guidance Counsel Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 215-732-1552 Peter@FiduciaryGuidanceCounsel.com
Bri Posted May 26, 2022 Posted May 26, 2022 Just read Q35 to DOL FAB 2008-04, it's 10% of the prior year's amount "handled", so unless one wants to get retentive and look for the highest asset value at any point during the prior year, I like the prior EOY/current BOY thinking. Luke Bailey 1
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