FT Retire Posted November 18, 2022 Posted November 18, 2022 What type of calculations do you normally use for RMD calculations for Cash Balance and/or Defined Benefit Plans? I am aware that one option is a lump sum option in which a calculated monthly benefit from last year's valuation report * 12 months = current year RMD. Just wondering what has worked for you and if the method you use helps reduce the amount of taxes paid for the affected participant taking the RMD.
CuseFan Posted November 21, 2022 Posted November 21, 2022 Generally, you satisfy DB RMDs by commencing the benefit as an annuity, either single or joint life, unless the plan allows other options. If the plan allows a lump sum and participant so elects, then a portion of the lump sum will need to be parsed out for one or two year's worth of RMDs, depending when paid. The RMD portion can be determined as 12 or 24 annuity payments or considering the lump sum as a DCP balance and using DCP RMD methodology, which always (in my experience) leads to a lower RMD portion. If this is for an owner or HCE, the plan will need to be sufficiently funded to pay a lump sum. C. B. Zeller, Luke Bailey, ugueth and 1 other 4 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
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