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Posted

I am born on 12/30/1950 and am more than 5% owner.

Is my RBD 4/1/2023?

Is my second RMD due 12/31/2023?

Thanks

Posted

@Jakyasar You have the correct dates.  Hopefully your RMDs due 2023 were paid to you in 2023.

The following chart is handy for looking at start dates.

BIRTHDAY RMD AGE
Born before July 1, 1949 RMD age is 70 1/2
Born July 1, 1949 to December 31, 1950 RMD age is 72
Born January 1, 1951 to December 31, 1959 RMD age is 73
Born after January 1, 1960 RMD age is 75

 

Posted

.... assuming the Plan itself is/will be amended to recognize the new 72/73 ages.  There is no requirement to do so.

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted

The tax-law condition about a required beginning date is a no-later-than condition. Meeting § 401(a)(9) does not preclude an earlier required beginning date. A plan’s sponsor may set a younger age if it does not compel an involuntary distribution before the participant’s normal retirement age, and comports with other tax-qualification conditions.

Tax law recognizes a plan’s administration contrary to its current documents if that administration later becomes legitimated by a remedial amendment.

But what if a plan’s administrator doesn’t yet know what an anticipated amendment will be? And doesn’t know even what the plan’s sponsor intends for a later amendment?

(I recognize that getting this information often is about an employer talking within itself, at least for many single-employer plans. But to see an awkwardness that results from tax law’s remedial-amendment tolerance, let’s follow ERISA’s distinction between a plan’s sponsor and the plan’s administrator.)

Imagine a plan for which the current documents set a required beginning date in relation to age 70½. Imagine that the plan’s sponsor has not communicated to the plan’s administrator that the sponsor intends to amend the provision to refer to some other age. In those circumstances, the plan’s administrator might interpret 70½ to mean 72, 73, or 75 (as fits the particular participant), but also might interpret 70½ to mean 70½.

Some service providers have blithely assumed every plan’s sponsor intends to amend a plan to provide for a required beginning date’s age the latest age § 401(a)(9) permits. Perhaps that’s almost universally so.

But shouldn’t a service provider ask the question?

Even if it’s the ubiquitous “we assume you want x, unless your written instruction tells us otherwise.”

Or even, “we provide our service assuming your plan provides x. If your plan provides something else, you must administer your plan without relying on our service.”

Peter Gulia PC

Fiduciary Guidance Counsel

Philadelphia, Pennsylvania

215-732-1552

Peter@FiduciaryGuidanceCounsel.com

Posted

@Peter Gulia is spot on.  Also, if the plan-required date is based on age 70-1/2, but the participant's RMD is 72 or 73 (according to the IRC), the payment (assuming a lump sum) is 100% rollable.

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

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