Santo Gold Posted September 26 Posted September 26 If a participant takes a loan out of their 401k plan account and they take the maximum amount available - 50% of their vested account balance (they are 100% vested). A few months later, they have a hardship and would like to take a hardship withdrawal that would remove most of their balance in the plan. Is this permitted? If so, it would drop their investment balance and the outstanding loan balance would now be well over 50% of their total account balance. Thank you for any comments.
Bri Posted September 26 Posted September 26 The loan only has to be capped at 50% of the vested balance at the time of origination. The "loan first, hardship second" approach is acceptable and common, actually. CuseFan and Bill Presson 2
CuseFan Posted September 26 Posted September 26 Similarly, if remaining account balance investments incurred a 20% loss, you wouldn't be forced to call the loan because it then exceeded 50%. As Bri said, it's an origination snapshot. Bill Presson 1 Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
ratherbereading Posted September 27 Posted September 27 Yes it is. And the loan first, hardship second is no longer in play. 4 out of 3 people struggle with math
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