Santo Gold Posted June 10, 2021 Posted June 10, 2021 We have a 401(k) Plan participant with a balance in the plan, DOB in 1946, still employed, is a non-key. This year (2021), the company was purchased by another business. The old company is no longer in existence and the 401k plan is being terminated (not a plan merger). The new owner has hired most of the prior company's employees, including the above individual, and is crediting service with the prior business for all purposes in the new owner's 401k plan. Balances from the old plan can be rolled into the new plan immediately. Would an RMD be needed for this individual this year? We could do the RMD before she rolls her balance into the new employer's plan or after the rollover? And if one is required from the old plan, would it also be required from the new plan in subsequent years even though she would continue to be employed? Thank you.
C. B. Zeller Posted June 10, 2021 Posted June 10, 2021 From what you described, I take it this was an asset sale? If it was a stock sale, then the new employer would have issues maintaining their existing 401(k) plan after the termination of the old employer's plan due to the successor plan rule. Since it's an asset sale, the employee had a termination of employment with the old employer, and consequently must take and RMD from the old employer's plan for the 2021 calendar year. If she rolls over the rest of her balance into the new employer's plan, she will not need another RMD until she terminates employment with the new employer. Luke Bailey 1 Free advice is worth what you paid for it. Do not rely on the information provided in this post for any purpose, including (but not limited to): tax planning, compliance with ERISA or the IRC, investing or other forms of fortune-telling, bird identification, relationship advice, or spiritual guidance. Corey B. Zeller, MSEA, CPC, QPA, QKA Preferred Pension Planning Corp.corey@pppc.co
Santo Gold Posted June 10, 2021 Author Posted June 10, 2021 It was an asset sale. I understand, I just thought there was room to argue that since the new owner bought the old business and she is still working for the new owner, that perhaps in this case it is not viewed as an employment termination for RMD purposes.
C. B. Zeller Posted June 11, 2021 Posted June 11, 2021 There is no question in my mind that there is a termination of employment that would cause an RMD to apply. But even if that weren't the case, you can't have it both ways. Either it is the same employer, in which case there is no RMD but successor rules apply, or it is not the same employer in which case there is an RMD and no successor issue. Free advice is worth what you paid for it. Do not rely on the information provided in this post for any purpose, including (but not limited to): tax planning, compliance with ERISA or the IRC, investing or other forms of fortune-telling, bird identification, relationship advice, or spiritual guidance. Corey B. Zeller, MSEA, CPC, QPA, QKA Preferred Pension Planning Corp.corey@pppc.co
Luke Bailey Posted June 11, 2021 Posted June 11, 2021 I agree with C.B. Zeller. If they had taken the plan and done a merger, then probably no RMD, because the individual would still be employed by the employer sponsoring the plan, but they did not do that. Luke Bailey Senior Counsel Clark Hill PLC 214-651-4572 (O) | LBailey@clarkhill.com 2600 Dallas Parkway Suite 600 Frisco, TX 75034
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