david rigby

Sounds like you can amend the plan to change the percentage to zero, effective after the appropriate 204(h) notice.

Correct, the SSA is not open to public inspection, but the individual could request that the company look at previous SSA's. BTW, if he terminated in 1983, then he did not have to be on an SSA until 1984, that is the 5500 filed for the 1984 plan year. Another source of information might be the actuary or consulting firm providing services, even if no the current one. Again, the plan sponsor will have to make that request.

What is the plan year?

401(a)(26) ?

Life expectancies are normally calculated from a mortality table. As you can see from this Society of Actuaries list of tables, there are a large number of mortality tables. Some are very far out of date; some are from other countries; some are based on very specific types of data. You are probably seeking something for a "disabled" individual. It is not easy to answer your question; it would help much to know the purpose for which the answer is needed. Not also that a "disabled smoker" might be different than a "disabled non-smoker". Ditto for male vs. female.

Don't forget to use the plan provisions to determine who to pay, and when.

Not sure of the exact answer, but if you distribute the acount balance (to beneficiary, estate, etc.) by the time of filing the 5500, then you can omit from the Schedule SSA. Also, note that you do not have to include on the SSA until the filing of the 5500 for the plan year following the year of separation of employment.

Try IRC 411(a)(11).

If you mean, for example, that the employer wants to specify in the plan that all accounts less than $2000 will be distributed upon severance, and those over $2000 will be distributed at employee discretion, then that is permissible. The law permits this limit to be set in the plan, but no more than $5000. However, if the plan currently has a provision with a higher limit, then watch out for "cutback" issues.

I suggest caution on assuming that "withholding is not mandatory for most states." More states are changing these rules.

What is the usual method of providing the Schedule of Reportable Tranactions under Line 4(j) of Schedule H? Specifically, a bank or other trustee usually includes this in the year-end trust statement. But a broker does not. For TPAs who prepare 5500s, how do you deal with this ?

Sure, lots of examples. Probably the "new" part of the original post is that it is new for that particular employer. However, there is one difference to remember. The "flex dollars" that are spent for medical/dental insurance, reimbursement accounts, etc. are not subject to FICA tax. If those dollars (usually, whatever is left over after all other choices) are placed in the employer's 401(k) plan, then FICA tax does apply.

Correct. Note also that if he outlives her, there will be no survivor benefit (unless specified by the plan), which is exactly the same as if there had been no divorce.

Highly unlikely. Virtually all pension plans state that the form of payment cannot be changed by either the plan or by the retiree once payments have commenced. A QDRO does not have this right either. BTW, it also very likely that the beneficiary under that J&S election is the soon-to-be-ex-wife, in name not "title". Thus, the divorce will have no bearing on her survivor rights; ditto if he remarries.

The portion sold to Buck was Unifi, which was primarily the outsourcing practice. In addition, I think the benefits practice that was formerly Kwasha went to Buck. But PwC had lots more benefits consultants that did not go to Buck. For example, a search of the Actuarial Directory shows that PwC employees over 240 actuaries worldwide, about 100 of which work in "retirement consulting".

An ex-PwC employee has told me that the benefits consultanting practice of PwC is not included in this spinoff/sale. Can anyone confirm or deny this?

Sorry for being so ignorant, but can you define what you mean by "free riding"?

http://www.ibm.com/news/us/2002/07/30.html

Selling the tax benefits is a good idea, but I have found that selling the match is even better. Although the attorneys out there probably don't like it, I am fond of the phrase "free money".

Probably this EE is 100% vested. But, as always, it depends on what the amendment said.

I agree. And I suggest that the language in the 401(k) plan is deficient unless it already contains provision of what happens if "the other plan" does not (for whatever reason) provide the TH minimum.

According to this, Alabama is not at issue. http://www.americanbenefitscouncil.org/doc...update72602.pdf

What does the plan need prior service for? (Oops, I ended a sentence with a preposition. A thousand pardons.) If this is a DC plan, probably the only uses will be for determining eligibility service and vesting service.

Is there a need for a valuation at date of "transfer"? Does the plan (and/or administrative procedures) specify the timing of valuaitons?

And the TPA does not have one?