rocknrolls2
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Everything posted by rocknrolls2
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Self Correct if submitted under VCP?
rocknrolls2 replied to tsrl01's topic in Correction of Plan Defects
According to the most recent EPCRS Rev Proc, even if the plan is under Audit CAP, it is possible to self-correct. In many cases, the agent handling the Audit CAP will specifically allow you to use SCP for the self-correctable items. I see no reason why you could not self-correct merely because you submitted a VCP application. I assume that you have not yet heard from the agent assigned to review the VCP application. In that case, go full speed ahead. -
I would view the changes agreed to between the employer and the union in the CBA to be proposals to amend the plan. Since this would be an optional or voluntary amendment to the plan, the IRS guidance on optional plan amendments not necessarily required by plan qualifications generally requires such amendments to be adopted by the end of the plan year in which they are to have been made effective. Accordingly, I would view this as a plan document failure which can be corrected via EPCRS. It would be helpful to know in what year the changes discussed in the CBA to be able to determine whether the change could be implemented via self-correction. If it is within 3 years of when the changes were agreed upon, then the plan could be self-corrected and thus, retroactively amended under the latest iteration of EPCRS.
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Peter, I understand what you are driving at with respect to your first post. Could you perhaps look at it in the following way: if the participant's account balance does not exceed the specified dollar amount threshold as of the last day of the plan year, then the involuntary cashout provision is invoked. What happens subsequently (with respect to investments) should not cause the account to be precluded from being cashed out. Also, in an involuntary cashout scenario, you mentioned the 402(f) notice. My understanding is that, in that scenario, the account balance is simply distributed to the participant in the form of a single sum. Regarding your second post, since the participant is entitled to elect whether or not to do a direct rollover to another eligible retirement plan to the extent the account exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $5,000, I could see that that would take slightly longer a period of time between the end of the plan year and when the distribution/rollover is actually implemented. However, if the account balance as of the close of the plan year does not exceed $5,000, the plan could still implement the distribution/direct rollover, in spite of interim investment gains.
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Contingent beneficiary question
rocknrolls2 replied to BG5150's topic in Retirement Plans in General
Peter and CuseFan are correct that the Plan language would only automatically revoke the spouse's designation as a beneficiary. As to why the participant does not simply complete a new beneficiary designation, that would certainly be the preferable way to approach this. However, in most cases, a participant only completes a single bene form at the beginning of his/her career with the employer and never revisits the decision at any future point ever. I know that plan administration best practices suggest that plan administrators periodically contact participants and urge them to complete new bene forms, but those calls are, all too often, unheeded. Regrettably, the initial bene selection too often does not reflect the participant's wishes upon his/her retirement or death. Also, regrettably, that is the stuff that results in heavily-contested ERISA litigation. -
Belgarath, you should be aware that, in some cases, the plan document may specify how the plan may be amended, including how an amendment may be adopted. You should consider both the plan document and corporate law (with the advice of an attorney) to get the correct answer. If the Plan document contains such a provision, then it would override otherwise applicable state law to the extent consistent with ERISA and the Code.
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In my view, the best result would be to lobby to eliminate this arcane relic of the tax law so that the nonspouse alternate payee is responsible for his or her own tax withholding and any order providing for 100% of the participant's account balance becomes the alternate payee's account balance, subject to such withholding as well as repeal the exception to the mandatory 20% withholding requirement. But, unless someone has some great contacts in Congress, the IRS or the Treasury Department, and such orders generally have to be followed, I vote for determining that the order is disqualified unless the alternate payee signs a written consent to allowing the order to become qualified the account is subject to income tax withholding on the part of the participant.
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My response is "Hell No!" Both the primary people at EBSA and members of the HELP and Finance Committees on the Senate side, and the Ways and Means and Education and Labor Committees on the House side should be forced to sit through a four-hour course of ERISA fiduciary duty requirements before they come up with some other hare-brained scheme to cast persons who are not, and should never be, characterized as fiduciaries, into them. If they fail to get the message on the purpose of these requirements, they do not belong in a policymaking role in government at any level. Until this cryptocurrency pronouncement, EBSA (and its predecessor, the PWBA) took the position that no class of investments is per se imprudent. In designing the plan and making the decision to allow participants to invest in certain types of investment funds, the plan's fiduciaries should take into account the level of investment sophistication of the average plan participant. Perhaps they should warn them about selecting investments that are or could be extremely risky or should perhaps limit the menu of available funds for selection as part of their fiduciary duty. Or, perhaps they should disclose the need for participants to determine, on an individual basis, their own risk tolerance as well as the period of time their accounts will be invested in the plan (such as proximity to retirement age) in determining whether a particular class of assets is appropriate for them. Otherwise, casting certain types of persons as a super-fiduciary or watchdog defeats the purpose of providing investments for retirement.
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In addition to what was discussed above, other than an obligation on the employer's part to make sure that the transferee plan is qualified and getting it to make covenants to preserve optional forms of benefit under Code Section 411(d)(6) (except to the extent the plan administrator eliminates one or more of them pursuant to regulations specifically authorizing such elimination) and getting the transferee plan's commitment to comply with any applicable reporting and disclosure requirements under the Code and/or ERISA, , I do not see any potential liabilities on the part of the employer of the transferor plan.
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Management Group 414(m)(5)
rocknrolls2 replied to CNB CONSULTING's topic in Retirement Plans in General
CNB Consulting: Please note that the American Jobs Creation Act of 2004, which amended Code Section 1563(a)(2) in thie way you describe also added a paragraph (5) to Section 1563(f). The change essentially means that for purposes of any provision of law (other than the part relating to consolidated returns), including for qualified plan purposes, the two-part test (i.e., at least 80% and more than 50%) for purposes of determining a brother-sister controlled group is retained. -
I am not in disagreement with any of the previous responses. However, I wanted to make the following point. The QJSA was elected by the participant's own free will whether or not the plan provided for one with respect to an unmarried participant. The Plan had no reason to believe that the facts were false at the time the election was made and therefore there was no duty on the part of the plan's fiduciaries to do an investigation. Since the participant and not the plan made the misrepresentation, why not leave the participant where he lies? I have seen a court case on somewhat similar facts that was decided by a federal trial court in the 1980s. Posthumously providing the participant with the difference between the QJSA and the SLA would amount to unjustly enriching the fraudster. Leave things where they lie!
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Employer not depositing employee deferrals - does TPA report to the DOL?
rocknrolls2 replied to PamR's topic in 401(k) Plans
I am firmly behind Peter's position on this and I would NOT inform the DOL. However, if your client is a fiduciary with respect to the plan with potential knowledge of a fiduciary breach, then either work with your lawyer to write a letter to the allegedly breaching fiduciary threatening suit unless s/he makes any deferrals up to the plan with earnings as soon as possible but no later than a short period of sending the letter or sue the breaching fiduciary for fiduciary breach, in which case you would have to furnish a copy of the complaint to the DOL. -
Excluding Part-Time Employees From 401(k) Plan
rocknrolls2 replied to metsfan026's topic in 401(k) Plans
The IRS position on this is crystal clear. They regard it as a violation of Code Section 410 (a) which permits a maximum eligibility condition due to plan eligibility of one year. There are a lot IRS Revenue Rulings from the 1970s and 1980s clariifyng how this rule works. -
Spin-Off - When is it appropriate to do a spin-off 401(k)?
rocknrolls2 replied to MrsMacias's topic in 401(k) Plans
Nate S, In addition to the points you have raised about what has to be preserved, you also have to preserve the optional forms of distribution available under B's plan (which can be limited to the amounts being spun off into A's plan). The IRS regs do provide plenty of options for validly eliminating some of these via amendment without running afoul of the anti-cutback rule. -
It was my understanding that the SECURE Act change regarding long-term part-time employees was not directly a vesting change. The requirement is merely to make them eligible to make elective deferrals to the plan. Elective deferrals have always been required to be 100% vested at all times. The employer is not required to make a matching contribution with respect to elective deferrals for such employees. However, if it does, it is not required to provide any more vesting than that which is provided to matching contributions made on behalf of full-time employees.
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Since no RMD was required to be paid to the participant for 2021, no RMD would be payable to a beneficiary attributable to the 2021 distribution calendar year. The post-death RMDs must begin by 12/31 of the year following the year of the participant's death. Based on your facts, the beneficiary would need to commence RMDs by no later than 12/31/2022 with respect to the 2022 account balance.
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Building on Peter's latest response, another factor worth considering is whether the church or association or convention of churches made the election described in Code Section 410(d)(1). If it did, then the nondiscrimination provisions would nevertheless apply. Please note that, once made, the election is irrevocable.
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I tend to agree with Cuse Fan to the extent he says that the spouse at the annuity starting date is locked in regardless of what happens afterwards and david rigby when he points out the importance of the divorce decree. According to IRS Reg. Section 1.401(a)-20, Q&A-25(b)(3), "If the participant was married on the annuity starting date, the spouse to whom the participant was married on the annuity starting date is entitled to the QJSA protection under the plan. The spouse is entitled to this protection (unless waived and consented to by such spouse) even if the participant and spouse are not married on the date of the participant's death, except as provided in a QDRO." I wanted to point out two things in response to the cited regulation: (1) I have not seen a single court case that did not hold that the benefit could be paid to anyone other than the spouse as of the annuity starting date, even if there is a QDRO providing to the contrary; and (2) most defined benefit plans I have seen lock in the spouse at the time of the annuity starting date as the designated survivor annuitant and do not allow for it to be changed in any respect.
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Trustee being removed, needs to sign amendment?
rocknrolls2 replied to TPApril's topic in 401(k) Plans
While not disagreeing with Bri's answer, another approach is to have the trust agreement provide that, to the extent a trustee is an employee of the plan sponsor, she or he shall be deemed to have automatically resigned his/her trusteeship upon terminating his/her employment with the plan sponsor. -
One additional point to the earliest responses is that you have to provide for the money purchase portion only that the joint and survivor annuity and spousal consent requirements are satisfied. In response to your question on whether any post PPA amendments need to be added to the MP portion, look at the required amendment lists with respect to laws enacted since PPA. There may also be some optional provisions that the client might want to add, especially those that make the money purchase portion more readily available (such as the ability to take in-service distributions at age 59 1/2 (added by the same law containing the SECURE Act (but in a different division of that law).
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Further along the vein of what ESOP Guy was alluding to, never accept the label that your potential client slaps on a worker as being correct unless a more thorough inquiry is made by you or a legal professional on what the worker's true status (employee or independent contractor) is likely to be. Only after determining that a worker has been vetted through the worker classification test and determined to be either employee or independent contractor can one confidently say whether the label will or will not be accepted by the IRS or a court. Anyone can slap a label onto any workerr. Blindly accepting the label without more will subject yourself and your client to untold trouble and liability from which you may never recover. As David Rigby so aptly put it, RUN!!!!!
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Sale of art work by a Money Purchase Plan
rocknrolls2 replied to Ananda's topic in Retirement Plans in General
Another issue which no one seems to have picked up on is whether the art work were acquired by a participant's self-directed account. If it were, then the value of the art work is considered a distribution and taxable under Code Section 408(m). It appears to be taxable at least in the year in which the work of art is acquired. I know that there is a recent case decided by the US Tax Court on this. Perhaps the IRS takes the position that as long as the asset is retained by the plan, it is considered a taxxable distribution in each year in which it continues to be so held. -
Excess/Defaulted Loan
rocknrolls2 replied to mming's topic in Distributions and Loans, Other than QDROs
In addition to the excellent insights from Lou, I wanted to add that this is something that is also covered by the DOL's Voluntary Fiduciary Correction program ("VCP"). Although it is extremely dated and the DOL has it on its regulatory agenda to update it, the existing program is what it is. You have two routes to go here: (1) use the VCP program, do the filing, pay the amount of the excise tax to the participant's account balance and get a no-action letter from the DOL or file and pay the excise tax on a form 5330 and then self-correct the error under EPCRS. I recall that the Rev Proc for EPCRS provides, at least as applied to delinquent remittance of employee contributions, that the correction is made through VFC first. It may also be the case as applied to a loan that is not timely repaid primarily due to the error on the part of the recordkeeper to initiate loan repayments via payroll deduction.
