Princess(k) Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 Is a partner that has separated from service (in September 2016) eligible to receive a profit sharing contribution if there is a last day allocation requirement?
david rigby Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 This question might answer itself, but (as always) the first inquiry is "what does the plan say?" hr for me 1 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
401king Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 If he separated from service what could make him eligible? After September he simply became a shareholder/owner. R. Alexander
Princess(k) Posted December 28, 2016 Author Posted December 28, 2016 The plan has a last day requirement for contributions, so my rationale is no, the partner is not eligible to receive the profit sharing contribution. HOWEVER, from a compensation perspective for partner elective deferrals, earned income is treated as currently available on the last day of the partnership's taxable year so could have made a deferral election prior to the end of the taxable year and the contribution is made by the partnership tax filing deadline. Thoughts?
duckthing Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 The plan has a last day requirement for contributions, so my rationale is no, the partner is not eligible to receive the profit sharing contribution. HOWEVER, from a compensation perspective for partner elective deferrals, earned income is treated as currently available on the last day of the partnership's taxable year so could have made a deferral election prior to the end of the taxable year and the contribution is made by the partnership tax filing deadline. Thoughts? I may be missing something here, but... the compensation perspective is probably not relevant here, unless the plan document's language on the last day requirement is something along the lines of "has Eligible Compensation paid or payable on the last day of the Plan Year". Maybe the partner retired and the plan has an exemption to the last-day requirement for retirement? I don't see how else they'd be eligible.
austin3515 Posted December 28, 2016 Posted December 28, 2016 Princess, the key word you used, which the IRS has discussed as well, is that it is "treated" as earned. IT is not actually earned. By my clock you still have 3 days to eliminate the last day rule. But remember, amendments must satisfy nondiscrimination so if the only one to benefit is the partner, then (assuming he is an HCE?) you are outa luck. P.S. Is 401king your father? Ha ha ha 401king and MoJo 2 Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
GMK Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 P.S. Is 401king your father? Ha ha ha Good one, Austin. Wondering if that would make him Darth 401king? or does that Carrie (RIP) this joke too far far away? austin3515 and K2retire 2
Peter Gulia Posted December 29, 2016 Posted December 29, 2016 Along with reading the plan's provisions and carefully interpreting the provisions if any is ambiguous, an employer/administrator might consider that fixing the date of when a deemed employee's deemed employment ended might be less obvious than it is for a common-law employee.http://www.ecfr.gov/cgi-bin/text-idx?SID=de2a11e42d5517340084ea34d12a1004&mc=true&node=se26.6.1_1401_610&rgn=div8 Peter Gulia PC Fiduciary Guidance Counsel Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 215-732-1552 Peter@FiduciaryGuidanceCounsel.com
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now