lcollins300 Posted March 1, 2018 Posted March 1, 2018 Would like to clarify that when a key defers less than 3% (say 1%) then the top heavy minimum would only be 1% correct? I keep on getting conflicting information that it must still be 3%. Employer is not making any other contributions except THM.
BG5150 Posted March 1, 2018 Posted March 1, 2018 If that is the ONLY Key EE deferring, you are correct. The rules are the lesser of 3% OR the highest Key allocation %. QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Tom Poje Posted March 1, 2018 Posted March 1, 2018 that depends. maybe . check the document. for instance 8. Top-Heavy Allocations Top-Heavy allocations are made to a. [ X ] This Plan. Participants who share in Top-Heavy minimum allocations: i. [ ] Non-Key only. Any Participant who is employed by the Employer on the last day of the Plan Year and is not a Key Employee ii. [ X ] All Participants. Any Participant who is employed by the Employer on the last day of the Plan Year you indicated the top-heavy was a 1% "allocation". but if all employees receive the allocation, then it sound like the key person receives as well (his deferral doesn't sound like an allocation). but since he deferred 1% he is now at 2%. oops I just increased my top heavy. but I haven't seen a write up on how this is supposed to be interpreted, so what do I know. 401king 1
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