Carol V. Calhoun Posted March 10, 2021 Posted March 10, 2021 I know there is a 10% limit for the first year, and a 15% limit for all subsequent years, on automatic contributions under a QACA. However, if you have just a straight auto enrollment/auto escalation (not an EACA or QACA), are there any legal limits on how high the level of contributions can be? I'm not finding any, but proving a negative is always hard. Employee benefits legal resource site The opinions of my postings are my own and do not necessarily represent my law firm's position, strategies, or opinions. The contents of my postings are offered for informational purposes only and should not be construed as legal advice. A visit to this board or an exchange of information through this board does not create an attorney-client relationship. You should consult directly with an attorney for individual advice regarding your particular situation. I am not your lawyer under any circumstances.
EBECatty Posted March 10, 2021 Posted March 10, 2021 I'm not aware of one either as a matter of qualification. Other than for QACAs, our pre-approved plan documents do not have any stated maximum or notes in the blanks indicating an upper limit on either auto-enrollment or auto-escalation. I would think at some point you would run up against a practical (or possibly fiduciary?) limit if you tried to auto-enroll everyone at, say, 75% of compensation and then had to take affirmative elections from everyone anyway (and/or field irate phone calls from people who weren't paying attention and had their entire paycheck deferred). Luke Bailey 1
Belgarath Posted March 10, 2021 Posted March 10, 2021 Agreed. IRS Notice 2009-65 sample amendment for a non-EACA doesn't include any limitations either. https://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-drop/n-09-65.pdf Luke Bailey 1
Peter Gulia Posted March 10, 2021 Posted March 10, 2021 If ERISA governs the retirement plan, “[t]he Secretary [of Labor] may prescribe regulations which would establish minimum standards that . . . an [automatic-contribution] arrangement would be required to satisfy in order for [ERISA § 514(e), preempting States’ laws] to apply in the case of such arrangement.” But the rule is 29 C.F.R. § 2550.404c-5, which sets conditions for notices and for a qualified default investment alternative, but does not otherwise specify “minimum standards”. Two practical points: EBECatty suggests a too-high implied-assent rate might lack a participant’s consent and attract an opt-out. Beyond that, another practical point is considering all possible wage reductions and deductions. For example, a retirement plan’s sponsor might set the highest implied-assent contribution so it would not interfere with withholding for Social Security taxes and Federal, State, and municipal income taxes and also would not interfere with participant contributions for health coverage, a health flexible spending account, a dependent care account, and other welfare benefits. For a lower-wage worker, the amounts for some of those arrangements might be relatively big percentages of pay, and so might leave smaller portions of pay available for retirement contributions. Peter Gulia PC Fiduciary Guidance Counsel Philadelphia, Pennsylvania 215-732-1552 Peter@FiduciaryGuidanceCounsel.com
BG5150 Posted March 10, 2021 Posted March 10, 2021 I don't see a point in setting the auto enroll percentage too high. If I ignored the correspondence and all of a sudden had 10% taken out of my pay I might be like "heck with that, stop it right now." But if only 3% came out, I might be like "Hmmm, that wasn't too bad..." QKA, QPA, CPC, ERPATwo wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
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