I am surprised I have never had this issue.  I have a client who deposited funds the  profit sharing allocations of the participants into their safe harbor accounts and safe harbor allocations into profit sharing accounts.  The funds are held at John Hancock. Is there a way to correct this?  I just want to transfer the difference between the accounts.  Should there be an effort to estimate the earnings and move those funds as well?  I do not recall reading about corrective measures in this situation.

I have a situation where I have a closed MEP that includes Company A and Company B.    Company A has different ownership than Company B.  The owner of Company B is over age 72 and has an account balance in the plan derived from being an employee at Company A (in which he has no ownership).   Is he required to take an RMD since he is an 5% owner in ONE of the companies that sponsors the plan?

I found this, but that is all I can find.   I told him he does have to take an RMD and he wants additional documentation and I understand his argument. 

Retirement plan and IRA Required Minimum Distributions FAQs | Internal Revenue Service (irs.gov)

This may have already been shared - but I didn't see if offhand, so thought I would pass it along. 

Exclusion from electronic filing requirement for Form 5330 is available now | Internal Revenue Service (irs.gov)

The IRS has decided paper filing is okay, just document that the reason for the paper filing is lack of authorized vendors. 

"

Treas. Reg. 54.6011-3(a) requires a taxpayer to file Form 5330, Return of Excise Taxes Related to Employee Benefit Plans, electronically for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2023, if the filer is required to file at least 10 returns of any type during the calendar year that the Form 5330 is due. Treas. Reg. 54.6011-3 (b) and Instructions for Form 5330 also provide, on an annual basis, exclusions from electronic filing requirements in cases of undue hardship.

Form 5330 can be filed electronically using the IRS Modernized e-File (MeF) System through an IRS authorized Form 5330 e-file provider. Currently, IRS has only one authorized e-filing provider for the Form 5330. As a result of the lack of authorized e-file providers for the Form 5330, the IRS has determined that a filer is permitted to file a paper Form 5330 for the 2024 taxable year. The filer should document that the reason for not filing electronically and filing a paper Form 5330 is the lack of authorized vendors."

How can a company’s owner “use up” his Retained Earnings by utilizing/opening a qualified retirement plan?

I know a tiny bit about accounting, and I have a potential client (architect) who wants to reduce his RE by opening a Profit Sharing/Cash Balance combo.  He's 59 years old.

Advice?  Knowledge?

Thank you!

Hi

Non PBGC covered combo plans

Sponsored by a corporation with the employees and a sole-prop. Joe owns both entities.

Needs to use 31% rule.

Under the corporation satisfied the 31% rule.

Under the sole-prop only deducting CB for Joe only. No DC deduction.

If you combine them for total deduction, fails 31% rule.

However, ss they are separately deducting the contributions, I think it is ok to test deductions separately.

Am I wrong?

Edit: I’m happy to pay a professional to advise on how best to navigate the situation I’ve described below  Would anybody here be willing to take this on? Or be able to refer me to somebody that can? I’ve reached out to a few professionals and unfortunately have not had any luck  Thank you.

Hello, I am self-employed and have been contributing to a solo 401k since 2022, but I think that I’ve made some mistakes that I need help resolving.  I've asked my CPA and his 401k plan administrator, but they are unsure of how to help me.

In January 2022 I opened a Traditional Solo 401k and Roth Solo 401k at ETrade.  When setting up the accounts, I used Plan Numbers 001 and 002 as directed by ETrade.  The Plan Sponsor was my sole proprietorship.  I made zero contributions to the Traditional and $3,000 to the Roth.

A few months later I decided to establish an S-Corp, and I opened up another Solo 401k account at Vanguard with the S-Corp as the sponsor.  For this account I used Plan Number 001.  Since I didn’t plan to operate the sole proprietorship any longer, I closed the two accounts at ETrade and rolled the Roth 401k balance into an existing Roth IRA that I hold at Vanguard.

I am now realizing that I should have filed Form 5500-EZ after closing the ETrade accounts.  I am also wondering if I may have violated the successor plan rule by erroneously considering the sole proprietorship and S-Corp to be separate employers rather than an affiliated / controlled group.

Questions:

1. Will I need to file two separate late returns using Form 5500-EZ and pay the associated $1,000 in penalties for the ETrade accounts that were closed?  Or is it possible that I may only need to file one considering I made zero contributions to the Traditional account?
2. Do the sole proprietorship and the S-Corp qualify as affiliated employers?  If so, did I violate the successor plan rule by opening the Vanguard 401k within 12 months of terminating the ETrade accounts?  What penalties would this incur and how would I rectify this?
3. If the sole prop and S-Corp are affiliated, do I need to amend the plan sequence number on my current Vanguard solo 401k account to be 003?

We have a Safe Harbor Plan that would like to add Automatic Contribution Arrangement (ACA) mid-year for 2024.

I have 2 questions.

1) Can a Safe Harbor Plan add an ACA feature? To me, it seems like a Safe Harbor plan can only be a QACA, so ACA feature cannot be added. Is that correct?

2) If the ACA feature can be added to a Safe Harbor Plan, can the feature be added Mid-Year (I realize that a Safe Harbor plan cannot be changed to QACA mid-year)?

Thanks.

Hi

Currently have a SIMPLE IRA. Wants to add a DB plan for 2024.

I thought cannot do it, what am I missing?

Employee is terminated on 4/22/24, his pension paperwork is produced with a Benefit Commencement Date of 5/1/2024. He is then asked to work on an “on-call” basis, so a job is opened for him, but he only works one day for 8 hours on 5/18/24.  Plan is now terminating. 

Plan doc says in order to be considered rehired, e/e has to work 40 hours.  Under this defn, 5/18 would not be considered re-employment and he could go and roll his money out.  But then the plan doc is vague on how employment is defined (just say employee is any person in the employ of the Company).  For vesting purposes, he has not incurred a break in service.  The definition of "Eligible Employee" excludes temporary workers.  

Can he take action on his pension as of date of his termination (4/22) or not until he's done working (i.e., after 5/18?)

Is he is considered re-employed on 5/18 because he's on the books with a job set up? Or does he actually have to work 40 hours a week?  If the plan is vague do I apply common law principles to decide whether he's a temp or an employee?

Have a company , father owns 100% of business and son over age 21 is only employee- I realize due to attrition rules the son also owns 100% - so is this a one man plan that I can file a 5500 EZ , or do I need to do an Sf?

I’m on WA state and have been on COBRA through my previous employer (I quit and went to work somewhere else) for around 10 months. I have paid on time every month and have been using the coverage with no issues. This weekend I received notice from a provider that they got a denial of payment for June services from my insurance because “coverage was terminated”. I paid my June (and July) premiums to my former employer on time just like all the other months, and they took the money as usual. I never asked for my coverage to be terminated, did everything per usual on my end. There is no possibility of any issues with my payments, they are always done electronically and the billing office at my former employer confirmed receipt of each payment. I have emailed the billing office to see what is going on but likely won’t hear until Monday, but I looked at my insurance online and I see the EOBs that began denying claims starting in June. What are my legal options is my former employer screwed up and stopped sending in my payments? I actually planned to switch my coverage to my new employers plan at the end of this month thankfully, but that is still 1.5 - 2 months of no coverage because old employer somehow screwed the pooch?? COBRA max is 18 months here in WA, so I didn’t max out on time or anything.

Owner-only plan didn't file 5500-EZ in 2021 or 2022.  Is it recommended to file the two late 5500-EZs separate from the timely filed 2023 Form 5500-EZ?  It seems to me that filing them all together would make more sense since there wouldn't be a situation where the timely form is processed before the late forms, resulting in correspondence.  Thanks for your input.

We have a Safe Harbor 401(k) plan that has a basic match formula (100% on the first 3% and 50% on the next 2%).

They would like to add the automatic contribution arrangement that would be a flat 4%. Can a Safe Harbor plan add ACA (not EACA or QACA) at 4%? 

Also, can they change the formula to 100% match on the first 4% instead of the current formula? Based on what I found here: https://www.irs.gov/retirement-plans/mid-year-changes-to-safe-harbor-401k-plans-and-notices, it looks like it's permissible assuming it applies to the entire year.

In this case, I believe we will need to do 2 amendments. One amendment would amend the Safe Harbor formula effective 1/1/2024. The second amendment would amend the plan to flat 4% ACA, effective now. I would think that we can't combine these amendments in one, since the effective date for the Safe Harbor formula change has to be 1/1/2024, but the ACA feature was not available for the entire year, so it can't have an effective date of 1/1/2024. Would you agree?

Thanks!

Hi!

Company A is selling Division Z to Company B with the close date being mid-month.

Company A will stop providing health coverage to Division Z employees mid-month at close. Company B will start providing health coverage to these employees at close (no time without coverage).

However, since Division Z employees were not offered health coverage for each day of the month at Company A, there will be a reporting gap for 1094 and 1095 purposes. Likewise, for Company B.

Has anyone dealt with this before? Is there a workaround here to eliminate the coverage gap, other than requesting company A keep benefits turned on through the end of the month?

We have a very standard NQDC Plan.  Section 409A-compliant.  Elective deferrals and employer contributions.

Are there any risks that a standard NQDC Plan can make the company/sponsor subject to any Securities Law or Blue Sky Law (Federal/State) requirements?

If an auditor concludes that a plan has a "significant deficiency" in the plan's internal controls (but that deficiency does not rise to a "material deficiency"), must that be reported in the plan's financial statements attached to the plan's Form 5500?

We have a 401k plan with a participant who died a couple of years ago.  The beneficiaries are the 2 adult children.  The daughter has already received her distribution, but the son will not respond to any contact from us or from his sister.  He did respond when we first contacted him and said he would complete the paperwork, etc.  He never did and now does not respond to mail, calls, etc.  We cannot even do a forced rollover because we have no SSN to provide the platform that holds the assets.  Any suggestions are appreciated.

Thank you.

Hi, 

As per the new DOL regulatory the requirement for annuities has been loosed is there thing that can be shared what those  requirements are? any DOL guidelines links that any one share? 

Suppose a participant in a traditional db plan terminated employment 10/31 and has an annuity starting date of 11/1. If they receive two months of severance comp which is not paid until 12/31 can that comp be included in the accrued benefit as of 10/31 and become part of the first payment on 11/1?  If the severance comp is paid in the final 10/31 pay I think clearly it is okay. The first scenario does not seem correct to me but I cannot say why precisely. Would it be different though if the benefit calculation is done after 12/31 with a RASD to 11/1?  The plan document says that the accrued benefit is as of a date but compensation seems to be related to the plan year?

if a DBP terminated in 2023 with 4 active employees (2 owners and 2 staffs) in 2023 and the sponsor wants to move the excess asset to the 401k plan to avoid excess tax, however, both staffs (one is HCE, another is NHCE) terminated in 2024, the NHCE needs to get GW so she/he needs to be benefiting in 2024 xtest, what about the HCE? he doesn't have any required contribution (GW or TH). Also, I find the following language from ERISA Outline Book, in this case, he doesn't need to be benefiting in 2024 in order for the 401(k) plan to be qualified as a replacement plan (95% active participants), right? Thank you in advance!

5.a.3) Restrictions on allocations to HCEs. Pursuant to IRC §4980(d)(4)(A), an amount allocated from the suspense account may not result in prohibited discrimination under IRC §401(a)(4). Thus, if the employer restricts allocations to HCEs who were active participants in the terminated defined benefit plan, such restrictions will not cause the plan to fail to satisfy the 95% requirement described in 5.a. above. See PLR 201147032 and PLR 201221059.