metsfan026 Posted 1 hour ago Posted 1 hour ago I;m having a disagreement with someone regarding this: Once a loan is taken, obviously it can't be more than 50% of the vested balance (up to $50k). What happens once the loan is taken? Does the 50% still stand? If a participant with a loan then wants to take an in-service distribution (as allowed by the document), can they not take it if it brings the loan balance to be greater than 50% of the balance (i.e. if someone who is eligible opts to take 100% of their balance, leaving the only current asset as the loan balance)? I've been told by a record keeper that the 50% rule no longer stands once the loan is taken, but I wanted to confirm. Is there anything in the regs that I can cite, if I'm correct? Thanks in advance!
Bri Posted 1 hour ago Posted 1 hour ago Indeed, the loan 50% rule only applies when it's taken. People have been doing the "Borrow half, hardship the rest" move for years....and that clearly leaves the loan as 100% of the remaining balance.
metsfan026 Posted 1 hour ago Author Posted 1 hour ago 13 minutes ago, Bri said: Indeed, the loan 50% rule only applies when it's taken. People have been doing the "Borrow half, hardship the rest" move for years....and that clearly leaves the loan as 100% of the remaining balance. Thank you! Is there anything in the regs that I can reference? I just want to be able to back it up to settle it. Thanks!
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